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Exam Number/Code: jn0-531
Exam Name: FWV, Specailist(JNCIS-FWV)
Questions and Answers: 151 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
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Exam : Juniper JN0-531
Title : Juniper FWV, Specailist(JNCIS-FWV)

1. Click the Exhibit button.
Review the exhibit. Track-ip has failed on the device, but the device did not fail over to the second unit in the cluster:
Why has failover not occurred?
A. The physical interfaces have not failed.
B. The track-ip interval is not sufficient to cause failover.
C. The track-ip address weight is not sufficient to cause failover.
D. The track-ip address threshold is not sufficient to cause failover.
Answer: C

2. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

3. To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer: ACD

4. Which commands would you use to create a zone and make it ready to perform IP classification for a VSYS?
A. set zone name Zone1
set zone Zone1 ip-classification
B. set zone name Zone1 shared
set zone Zone1 ip-classification
C. set zone name Zone1
set zone Zone1 shared
set zone Zone1 ip-classification
D. set zone name Zone1
set zone Zone1 shared
set zone Zone1 ip-classification enable
Answer: C

5. You have entered the command
set ffilter src-ip 1.1.7.250 dst-ip 10.1.10.5 ip-prot 6
What will be the resulting output in the debug for which this was created?
A. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
B. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 or a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 or has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
C. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has TCP as its protocol then it will be captured
D. If the packet has a src-ip of 1.1.7.250 and a dst-ip of 10.1.10.5 and has UDP as its protocol then it will be captured
Answer: C

6. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, which two can be determined about the VPN? (Choose two.)
A. NAT-traversal is enabled.
B. The rekey interval is 8 hours.
C. This device initiated the Phase 1 negotiations.
D. The certificate used in this exchange is set to never expire.
Answer: BC

7. Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the firewall administrator at the Storefront is complaining that when the communication to the DataCenter1 fails, the preexisting transfers and applications are dropped when the traffic is switched to DataCenter2.
Which statement explains this behavior?
A. SYN checking is enabled in the tunnel.
B. The weight value for the DataCenter2 is too high.
C. VPN monitor is misconfigured in the DataCenter2.
D. Phase 1 and Phase 2 negotiations to DataCenter2 did not occur on time.
Answer: A

8. Which three OSPF parameters are interface parameters? (Choose three.)
A. cost
B. priority
C. neighbor list
D. summarization
E. advertise default route
Answer: ABC

9. You have implemented a hub and spoke VPN. On the hub, there are two tunnel interfaces, one to each spoke. Both tunnel interfaces are in the same zone.
Which two configuration options will control traffic between the spokes? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the common zone to block inter-zone traffic.
B. Configure the common zone to block intra-zone traffic.
C. Configure each tunnel interface to block intra-zone traffic.
D. Configure one of the tunnel interfaces in a different zone and a set of policies.
Answer: BD

10. Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

11. Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

12. Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

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Legato Cert

emc legato cert networker 7 x specialist

• Exam Number/Code : e22-141
• Exam Name : emc legato cert networker 7 x specialist
• Questions and Answers : 180 Q&As

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Exam : EMC E22-141
Title : EMC Legato Cert Networker 7 x Specialist

1. Which two commands can you use to recover a single file directly from tape? (Choose two.)
A. scanner -S ssid devicename filename | uasm -rv
B. scanner -S ssid devicename | uasm -rv filename
C. scanner -S ssid devicename | uasm -rv -m source=dest filename
D. scanner -i -S ssid devicename | rsh client name ‘(cd destdir; uasm -rv filename)’
Answer: BC

2. scanner -v /dev/rmt/1cbn returns the following:
please enter record size for this volume (’q’ to quit)
What causes this?
A. The volume label is corrupted or unreadable.
B. The volume label is written by a pre-NetWorker 7.x version.
C. scanner cannot read the volume label because the volume is not mounted.
D. scanner cannot read the volume label because the volume is not rewound.
Answer: A

3. A tape is brought from another NetWorker server. scanner does not update the client file index, although the Client resource was created on the new NetWorker server. Which two should you check? (Choose two.)
A. Client ID
B. Group attribute
C. client name Aliases
D. Remote Access attribute
Answer: AC

4. You backed up some data on a NetWorker storage node in evaluation mode. The evaluation period expired before you installed the storage node enabler code. Which statement is correct?
A. You cannot recover the backed-up data to the storage node.
B. You cannot recover the backed-up data to the NetWorker server.
C. You can delete the expired storage node license and re-create it using the same code.
D. You can recover the backed-up data to the storage node if you have a jukebox enabler.
Answer: A

5. A volume will be scanned into a new offsite NetWorker server to recover a client. Currently this client does not exist on the new NetWorker server. Which two resources does the scanner command require to exist on the new NetWorker server? (Choose two.)
A. the original pool
B. the original group
C. the original client
D. the original device
Answer: AC

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IBM 000-208 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: 000-208
Exam Name: Open Systems Storage Solutions Version 6
Questions and Answers: 127 Q&A
Free IBM 000-208 Practice Exams
　
　
Exam : IBM 000-208
Title : Open Systems Storage Solutions Version 6

1. A customer is interested in updating its infrastructure to provide data replication capabilities between the corporate offices and a sales office 900 km (540 miles) away. The customer currently has both UNIX and Microsoft Windows 2003 servers sharing storage resources. Some applications are very response-time sensitive.
Which replication solution is best for this customer?
A. IBM System Storage DS6800 with Metro Mirror
B. IBM System Storage DS4800 with Metro Mirror
C. IBM System Storage DS4800 with FlashCopy
D. IBM System Storage DS6800 with Global Mirror
Answer: D

2. To meet new service level agreements, a customer must have 38,000 IOPS available for its database. The customer currently uses an IBM System Storage DS4300 with 112 15K, 146 GB drives.
Which solution should cause the least disruption to the customer?
A. IBM System Storage DS4800
B. IBM System Storage N5500
C. IBM System Storage DS6800
D. IBM System Storage DS8100
Answer: A

3. What is the maximum capacity of a single-engine fully configured DR550 with 750 GB SATA II drives and a fully configured TS3310 tape library with LT04 drives?
A. 316 TB
B. 168 TB
C. 484 TB
D. 856 TB
Answer: C

4. Which is a competitive advantage of the IBM System Storage DS4000 MetaData?
A. The MetaData is stored across all drives in the system.
B. The MetaData is stored on the first five drives in the system.
C. The MetaData must be stored on FC drives.
D. The MetaData is stored in the controller, thereby freeing up additional drive space.
Answer: A

5. A customer has a write I/O intensive application.
What has the greatest effect on performance?
A. swapping out to a larger drive size
B. memory in server
C. disk drive spindles
D. cache in the disk subsystem
Answer: C

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Optical

FoundFE Foundation Express for Field Engineers

• Exam Number/Code : 642-381
• Exam Name : FoundFE Foundation Express for Field Engineers
• Questions and Answers : 78 Q&As

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Exam : Cisco 642-381
Title : Cisco(r) FoundFE Foundation Express for Field Engineers

1. Which two features are only supported when using the Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM) Advanced Firewall wizard and not supported when using the Cisco SDM Basic Firewall wizard? (Choose two.)
A. deep-packet inspections
B. IP unicast Reverse Path Forwarding on the outside (untrusted) interface
C. DMZ services
D. custom inspection rules
E. proxy authentication
Answer: CD

2. When using Cisco Router and Security Device Manager to configure AAA login authentication policies, which four methods are available? (Choose four.)
A. group RADIUS: use a list of RADIUS hosts
B. group TACACS+: use a list of TACACS+ hosts
C. enable: use enable password
D. otp: use one-time password
E. local: use local database
F. default: use line password
Answer: ABCE

3. When using the Site to Site VPN wizard in Cisco Router and Security Device Manager, why would you need to create an access list using the Add a Rule screen?
A. to open holes on the firewall to permit ISAKMP, ESP, and AH traffic
B. to define the traffic that will be protected by IPSec
C. to specify a range of IP addresses on the inside interface
D. to specify the remote-peer IP address range
E. to enable split tunneling
Answer: B

4. After performing a security audit in Cisco Router and Security Device Manager (SDM), you receive this as one of the results: Enable Unicast RPF on all outside interfaces – Not Passed
Which Cisco SDM configuration wizard can be use to resolve this?
A. Easy VPN Server
B. Basic Firewall
C. Edit Interface/Connection
D. Site to Site VPN
E. Routing
F. NAT
Answer: B

5. Refer to the exhibit. According to the Cisco VPN Client software outputs shown, which two statements are correct about the connection entry named isr? (Choose two.)
A. HMAC-SHA1 is used to authenticate the remote users.
B. Preshared key is used to authenticate the remote peer.
C. AES is used to provide data confidentiality.
D. The Cisco VPN Client software is assigned an internal IP address of 192.168.1.1.
E. The PC that is running the Cisco VPN Client software will not have access to the local LAN once the PC is connected into the VPN.
Answer: BE

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High quality and Value for the 642-902 Exam
Exam Number/Code: 642-902
Exam Name: implementing cisco ip routing
Questions and Answers: 259 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
Test Register: Pearson VUE or Prometric
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IBM certifications III

IBM IM Information Server Technical Sales Mastery V1

• Exam Number/Code : 000-M21
• Exam Name : IBM IM Information Server Technical Sales Mastery V1
• Questions and Answers : 49 Q&As

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Exam : IBM 000-M21
Title : IBM IM Information Server Technical Sales Mastery Test v1

1. What is the goal of the various application Packs that exist for Information Server?
A. Better pricing and installation options
B. To accelerate team development
C. To enhance of source code management
D. To support loading/unloading and data integration with popular packaged applications such as Oracle Financials, SAP, and JD Edwards
Answer: D

2. How does Information Analyzer share meta data and results with the rest of Information Server?
A. Emails are automatically sent to all Information Server users
B. An html page is generated with analysis results
C. Analysis results and notes from data profiling research are saved in the meta data layer of Information Server and are available for viewing in DataStage and other Information Server tools
D. Automatic RSS publication of analysis results
Answer: C

3. There are many ways to exploit the concept of re-use with DataStage/QualityStage. Which feature below describes a graphical unit of re-use that can be included in any Job?
A. Graphical Job Sequencer
B. Performance monitor
C. Stage palette
D. Shared Containers
Answer: D

4. Are DataStage and QualityStage integrated at the interface, metadata, and engine levels?
A. No. They are only integrated at runtime.
B. Yes. They are integrated for developers at design time, at the engine for runtime, and at the meta data level for impact analysis and data lineage.
C. No. They still have separate developer interfaces.
D. No. They can invoke each other at run time at the engine level, but have a separate meta data model.
Answer: B

5. Which of the following cannot be published by WebSphere Information Services Director (WISD) as a Service?
A. DataStage Jobs
B. Teradata Stored Procedures
C. Federation Queries
D. QualityStage Jobs
Answer: B

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IBM LOT-957 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: LOT-957
Exam Name: Administeering IBM Lotus Connections 2.0
Questions and Answers: 93 Q&A
Free IBM LOT-957 Practice Exams
　
　
Exam : IBM LOT-957
Title : Administeering IBM Lotus Connections 2.0

1. The profiles population wizard does not support which of the following?
A. SSL binding
B. Open binding
C. Anonymous binding
D. Authenticated binding
Answer: C

2. You can group WebSphere Application Server processes so that you can administer them as a unit. WebSphere Application Server refers to such a group as which of the following?
A. Units
B. Teams
C. Profile
D. Processors
Answer: C

3. Kaelyn is currently configuring a Lotus Connections cluster with multiple IBM HTTP servers. Which of the following files of each federated profile may be shared between two HTTP servers, thus providing failover capability?
A. wimcfg.xml
B. plugin-key.kdb
C. ClusterApplication.ear
D. LotusConnections-config.xml
Answer: B

4. Which of the following user rights must be assigned to be able to add, enable, or disable widgets from the Lotus Connections Home page?
A. Editor
B. Manager
C. Creator
D. Administrative
Answer: D

5. Which of the Lotus Connections features require that you install the IBM HTTP Server and Web server plug-ins?
A. Blogs and Dogear
B. Dogear and Activities
C. Activities and Home page
D. Communities and Profiles
Answer: A

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Network General 1T6-510 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: 1T6-510
Exam Name: Troubleshooting with Sniffer Portable/Sniffer Distributed
Questions and Answers: 120 Q&A
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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-510
Title : Troubleshooting with Sniffer Portable/Sniffer Distributed

1. The most common VLAN grouping technique is __________.
A. Protocol
B. Segment
C. Multicast
D. Port
Answer: D

2. The maximum legal size Ethernet frame (excluding exceptions) as captured by the Sniffer and displayed in a 10/100 Ethernet trace file is:
A. 1518
B. 1512
C. 1532
D. 1514
Answer: D

3. Which of the following best describes the function of the Transport layer of the OSI Reference Model?
A. Packet framing
B. Reports upper-layer errors
C. Connection management
D. Manages user sessions
Answer: C

4. The most common type of physical error seen in networks today is:
A. Electrical interference
B. Frame collisions
C. Hardware malfunction
D. Duplex mismatch
Answer: A

5. A Novell aw?frame contains an 802.3 length field followed by a(n) __________.
A. SNAP header
B. IPX header
C. IP header
D. LLC header
Answer: B

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IBM 000-252 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: 000-252
Exam Name: test 252,ibm websphere apervr v6 netwrk deplovment.core admin
Questions and Answers: 108 Q&A
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1. A proposed WebSphere cell contains about 25 nodes. The environment will be horizontally and vertically scaled and can potentially grow over time. What strategy for HTTP Session persistence would work BEST for this situation?
A. Database session persistence
B. Memory-to-Memory replication in a peer-to-peer topology
C. Local sessions
D. Peer-to-Peer session persistence
Answer: A

2. A system administrator is configuring application servers for using the Data Replication Service in a WebSphere Application Server V6 cluster environment. Which of the following replication modes are available?
A. Client Only, Server Only, Both Client and Server
B. Cluster Only, Both Client and Cluster
C. Cluster Only, Both Cluster and Server
D. Cluster Only, Node Only, Both Cluster and Node
Answer: A

3. A system administrator wants to ensure that nodes with different hardware resources participate in a cluster as efficiently as possible. Which of the following should be used to BEST meet this goal?
A. A load balancer to evenly distribute requests to cluster members
B. A fine grain application update with capabilities to tune cluster member applications to the hardware
C. Weighted definitions for cluster members
D. Identical application components for all cluster members
Answer: C

4. A customer has an application running on WebSphere Application Server. When a user logs on, the application retrieves the relevant Product code information from the database and stores it in a HashMap. A reference to the HashMap is then stored in the HTTP Session object. Which of the following should be recommended as a means for improving HTTP Session persistence performance?
A. Use memory-to-memory replication
B. Use peer-to-peer topology
C. Use database persistence
D. Declare the reference to the HashMap as transient
Answer: D

5. When using the addNode command to federate a node to a cell, it may be necessary to know the Deployment Manager’s SOAP connection port. What is the BEST way to locate this port?
A. Navigate to the profiles directory of the WebSphere Application Server installation root directory, and issuing the wsadmin $AdminConfig getPort command.
B. Navigate to the bin directory of the node to be federated and issuing the following command ivt.bat server1 <node>.
C. Examine the serverindex.xml file corresponding to the Deployment Manager’s node.
D. Examine the responsefile.pct file in the WebSphere Application Server installation root directory.
Answer: C

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1. Which statement correctly describes CMP entity beans and finder methods?
A. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods defined in the remote interface.
B. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in the home interface.
C. The beans class should not contain ejbFind() methods; empty find() methods are defined in the remote interface.
D. The beans class should contain empty ejbFind() methods with corresponding find() methods defined in the home interface.
Answer: B

2. Which choice defines the term isolation when used to describe the properties of a transaction?
A. Isolation guarantees that a transaction will either result in a new valid system, or the system will be restored to its original state.
B. Isolation guarantees that a committed transaction will persist despite any type of system failure.
C. Isolation guarantees that logically related operations are dealt with as a single unit.
D. Isolation guarantees that transactions running at the same time will not have access to each others partial results.
Answer: D

3. Consider the following IDL definition:
Which statement correctly describes this IDL definition?
A. The IDL definition properly defines a factory object that may be used to obtain a reference to a Stock object.
B. The IDL definition cannot be compiled due to an error at line 13.
C. The IDL definition cannot be compiled due to an error at line 5.
D. The IDL definition cannot be compiled due to an error at line 11.
Answer: A

4. Which type of factory object returns references to objects that reside within the same process as the factory object?
A. Out-process
B. Generic
C. Specific
D. In-process
Answer: D

5. The ejbRemove() method for an enterprise bean contains the following line of code:
prepStmt = dbConn.prepareStatement ("DELETE
FROM MyTable
WHERE MyKey = ?");
What type of enterprise bean might this be?
A. Stateful session bean
B. BMP entity bean
C. CMP entity bean
D. Stateless session bean
Answer: ABD

6. Which client application could benefit from the use of a callback object?
A. A Java Micro Edition application that notifies the user of a hand-held computer when traffic conditions have improved along a given freeway
B. A Java applet that allows users to send an e-mail message to the quality control department
C. A Java application used by police officers in the field to retrieve vehicle registration information from a remote database by supplying a complete or partial license plate number
D. A Java applet that retrieves a map image when given a street address
Answer: A

7. Which statement correctly describes the EJBHome interface?
A. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide methods to create, find and remove enterprise beans.
B. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which provide a clients view of an enterprise bean.
C. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces and is the common superinterface for the SessionBean and EntityBean interfaces.
D. The EJBHome interface is extended by all home interfaces, which the container uses to inform enterprise beans about life cycle events.
Answer: A

8. Which statement correctly describes the EJBContext interface?
A. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to find, create and remove enterprise beans.
B. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to ascertain information about run-time status for enterprise beans.
C. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain metadata for enterprise beans.
D. The EJBContext interface defines methods that allow clients to obtain network references to enterprise beans.
Answer: B

9. What is the purpose of the InitialContext constructor?
A. To acquire a default JNDI context
B. To construct a database connection
C. To access a beans remote interface
D. To obtain a starting point into a servers namespace
Answer: AD

10. An EJB client invokes a create() method. An EJB container instantiates an enterprise bean as the result of this method call. The bean is then held in a pool awaiting a method invocation. To which type of enterprise bean does this process refer?
A. BMP entity bean
B. CMP entity bean
C. Stateless session bean
D. Stateful session bean
Answer: C

11. A finder method in an entity bean is written to find more than one primary key. Which statement correctly describes the invocation of this type of ejbFind…() method?
A. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance and invokes the corresponding ejbFind…() method. The home object instantiates a remote object for each primary key, with a collection of remote references returned to the client.
B. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance and invokes the corresponding ejbFind…() method. The home object instantiates a collection of remote objects for each primary key, with individual remote references returned to the client.
C. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the remote object invokes the corresponding ejbFind…() method. The remote object then returns a collection of remote references to the client.
D. When a client calls a multiple row finder method, the home object allocates a bean instance and invokes the corresponding ejbFind…() method. The home object instantiates a collection of primary key references and returns them to the client.
Answer: A

12. An entity beans class contains the following method signature:
public Integer ejbCreate (int partNum, String partDescription,
float partCost, String partSupplier) throws CreateException
Which statement is true of the beans ejbCreate() method?
A. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same number and types of parameters must be present in the beans remote interface.
B. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans home interface.
C. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same number and types of parameters must be present in the beans class.
D. An ejbPostCreate() method with the same method signature must be present in the beans class.
Answer: C

13. When and by what is the ejbLoad() method invoked?
A. The ejbLoad() method is invoked by the container just after the ejbActivate() method.
B. The ejbLoad() method is invoked by the client just prior to the ejbActivate() method.
C. The ejbLoad() method is invoked by the client just after the ejbActivate() method.
D. The ejbLoad() method is invoked by the container just prior to the ejbActivate() method.
Answer: A

14. You are using container-managed transactions for your entity bean. Which choice lists the methods that must have transaction attributes defined?
A. Remote interface: all business methods and the remove() method.
Home interface: all finder methods.
B. Remote interface: all business methods.
Home interface: the two remove() methods and all finder methods.
C. Remote interface: all business methods and the remove() method.
Home interface: all finder methods, the create() method, and the two remove() methods.
D. Remote interface: the remove() method.
Home Interface: the create() method and the remove() method.
Answer: C