IBM 000-718 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: 000-718
Exam Name: IBM U2 UniVerse V10.2 Administartion
Questions and Answers: 120 Q&A
Free IBM 000-718 Practice Exams
　
　
Exam : IBM 000-718
Title : IBM U2 UniVerse V10.2 Administartion

1. On a UNIX platform, you can run a script to do an orderly shutdown and startup of UniVerse. What are three valid options available for this script? (Choose three.)
A. pause
B. no parameter
C. start
D. stop
E. delay
Answer: BCD

2. You are instructed to change a heavily used very large file from 32 bit to 64 bit. Which command would you use if you determined the type should be changed to type 18 but the modulo and separation were sized correctly?
A. RESIZE filename 64BIT TYPE 18 * *
B. RESIZE filename TYPE 18 MODULO * SEPARATION * 64BIT
C. RESIZE filename TYPE 18 * * 64BIT
D. RESIZE filename 18 * * 64BIT
Answer: D

3. Which two commands should you use in UNIX to backup and restore files? (Choose two.)
A. mv
B. cpio
C. uvbackup
D. cp
E. tar
Answer: BE

4. Which UniVerse command offers parameters that helps you monitor MFILES?
A. SYS.STATUS
B. FILES.STACK
C. PORT.STATUS
D. PERF.MON
Answer: C

5. Which two statements about UniVerse Data Replication are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must configure the publisher and all subscriber systems before you begin publishing and subscribing.
B. RESIZE and CLEAR.FILE may be run on published files.
C. Files may be published prior to enabling Data Replication in uvconfig.
D. Subscriber files are read only.
E. RESIZE and CLEAR.FILE may be run on subscribed files.
Answer: AD

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Questions and Answers: 41 Q&A
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Exam : Microsoft 70-571
Title : TS:Microsoft Windows Embedded CE 6.0. Developing

1. You have a Windows Embedded CE run-time image for an OS design.?
You modify the platform.reg file in the board support package (BSP).?
You need to apply the changes to the run-time image.?
What should you do?
A. Run sysgen_capture.bat.
B. Run buildrel.bat, and then run makeimg.exe.
C. Copy platform.reg to the Windows CE client.
D. Open Remote Registry Editor, and then export the registry key.
Answer: B

2. You have an OS design for a target hardware platform that does not use battery-backed RAM. The target hardware has block storage.?
You need to preserve the registry data in a custom location on the block storage device.?
Which should you do?
A. Add the Hive-based Registry Catalog item and modify platform.bib.
B. Add the Hive-based Registry Catalog item and modify platform.reg.
C. Add the RAM-based Registry Catalog item and modify platform.bib.
D. Add the RAM-based Registry Catalog item and modify platform.reg.
Answer: B

3. You have a new OS design that uses a flash storage device.?
You add the Catalog items for the flash storage device and the file system to the OS design.?
You need to mount the flash storage device as the root of the file system.?
What should you do?
A. Add the File Cache Manager Catalog item.
B. Add the File Storage Redirection Catalog item.
C. Modify the Storage Manager Control Panel Applet.
D. Modify the Storage Manager profile in the registry.
Answer: D

4. You need to extend the functionality of an existing Catalog item. The new functionality must not affect OS designs that already use the Catalog item.?
What should you do first?
A. Create a copy of the OS design.
B. Clone the existing Catalog item.
C. Run the Configuration Manager.
D. Run the Import and Export Setting Wizard.
Answer: B

5. You build a Windows Embedded CE run-time image.
You need to download the run-time image from Windows CE Platform Builder to the built-in device emulator. You must achieve this goal without modifying the emulator.
What are two possible ways to download the run-time image? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Use USB.
B. Use DMA.
C. Use Serial.
D. Use Ethernet.
Answer: B AND D

6. You have a Windows Embedded CE run-time image.
You do not have the OS design for the run-time image.
You need to identify which Windows CE Catalog items are contained in the run-time image.
What should you do?
A. Review the contents of the Windowsnk.exe file.
B. Review the contents of the Windowsceconfig.h file.
C. From the Remote Tools menu, run Remote Registry Editor.
D. From the Remote Tools menu, run Remote System Information.
Answer: B

7. You have a Windows Embedded CE run-time image for an OS design.?
You need to ensure that third-party developers can develop applications for the OS design.?
What should you provide to the developers?
A. a board support package (BSP)
B. a software development kit (SDK)
C. a Windows CE run-time image
D. an XML help file
Answer: B

8. You need to measure the interrupt service thread (IST) latency for a target hardware platform.
What should you do?
A. Enable and run iltiming.exe.
B. Call the GetTickCount function.
C. Call the QueryPerformanceCounter function.
D. From the Remote Tools menu, run Remote Process Viewer.
Answer: A

9. You have an OS design.?
You attempt to build a Windows Embedded CE run-time image. During the makeimg phase, you receive the following error message: "Error: RAM start overlaps ROM binary."?
You need to ensure that the build process completes successfully.?
What should you do?
A. Modify the project.reg file of the OS design.
B. Modify the SOURCES file of the OEM adaptation layer (OAL).
C. Modify the config.bib file of the board support package (BSP).
D. Modify the platform.reg file of the board support package (BSP).
Answer: C

10. You have a Windows Embedded CE run-time image that contains a custom Catalog item.?
You need to verify that the Catalog item’s registry keys are in the run-time image before you deploy the image.?
What should you do?
A. Run Object Browser.
B. Review Resource View.
C. Review the reginit.ini file.
D. Review the project.bib file.
Answer: C

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Certification III

HP Procurve Convergence

• Exam Number/Code : HP0-791
• Exam Name : HP Procurve Convergence
• Questions and Answers : 60 Q&As

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Exam : HP HP0-791
Title : HP ProCurve Convergence

1. What is the measurable degree to which an IT staff can successfully guarantee the predictable behavior of network services?
A. Type of Service (ToS)
B. Class of Service (CoS)
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. Guarantee of Service (GoS)
Answer: C

2. In a converged network, what does video traffic require in comparison to voice traffic?
A. less delay
B. higher priority
C. more bandwidth
D. more expensive cabling
Answer: C

3. How does the ProCurve Adaptive EDGE Architecture support convergence?
A. by enhancing edge compression of video streams
B. by ensuring that traffic is prioritized at the edge of the network
C. by translating analog signals to digital signals at the edge of the network
D. by supporting a variety of Layer 3 protocols at the edge and in the core of the network
Answer: B

4. Ethernet and IP are the fundamental technologies for converged networks because they ___________. Select TWO.
A. offer mature standards
B. tolerate high packet loss
C. are widely deployed
D. offer high levels of security
E. aren’t disrupted by power outages
Answer: AC

5. A converged network ________________.
A. can transmit voice, video, and data over a single infrastructure
B. deploys circuit-switching instead of packet-switching
C. can serve more users than a conventional IP network
D. features an edge-oriented architecture
Answer: A

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NCSE

NCSE-Communication Server 1000 Ris.4.0

• Exam Number/Code : 920-452
• Exam Name : NCSE-Communication Server 1000 Ris.4.0
• Questions and Answers : 56 Q&As

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Exam : Nortel 920-452
Title : NCDE Callpilot 2.x/3.0 Unified Messaging
Version : Demo

1. A customer has installed two Communication Server (CS) 1000M Rls. 4.0 systems networked over the corporate WAN. Some of the system management functions of the CS 1000M can be performed by the Command Line Interface (CLI) as well as Element Manager. Which is a false statement regarding the use of Element Manager (EM) over the CLI?
A. EM provides for drop down menus for prompt choices.
B. EM provides full text descriptions of parameters and acronyms.
C. EM allows the programmer to use the LD commands as well as using menus.
D. EM increases speed and efficiency be organizing parameters to logical groups.
Answer: C

2. A customer is installing a Communication Server (CS) 1000M-SG Rls. 4.0 at their Main Office (MO). They have a 10-member network using the corporate WAN and a Primary Gatekeeper. They want to use an Alternate Gatekeeper for redundancy. When are the Alternate Gatekeepers programmed? (Choose two.)
A. during software installation and initial setup of the Signaling Server
B. in Overlay LD 17 (Configuration) under the ADAN as an ELAN IP address
C. in Overlay LD 117 (Configuration2) as an Embedded LAN (ELAN) IP address
D. in Element Manager under the Signaling Server setting after the software has been installed
Answer: AD

3. A customer has just installed a Communication Server (CS) 1000M system. The CS 1000M is networked via the corporate WAN with several offices around the country. BARS is configured correctly for all telephones to use this route and the Virtual Trunks show IDLE. Traffic studies have shown that the majority of calls to remote locations are going out via the PSTN route instead of the virtual route. What in the configuration could cause this situation?
A. CODEC is not assigned to the Virtual Trunk Route
B. Bandwidth is incorrectly defined in the Zone Basic Property
C. CODEC not defined for the zone in the Zone Basic Property
D. Bandwidth is not defined for the Virtual Trunk Route and member trunks
Answer: B

4. A customer has a network that contains several Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls 4.0 systems. They are networked together via Virtual Trunks. The customer has limited bandwidth on the WAN links between sites and has an Optimized WAN link to carry Voice calls that use G.729A. Which configuration setup will ensure that G.729 is always used on a virtual trunk call between sites?
A. No extra configuration is needed. Virtual Trunk calls always use G.729A CODEC.
B. ? configure the virtual route to be in same zone as voice gateway channels and IP sets ? verify that the customer has G.729A as part of CODEC profile ? verify all zones at the site are configured with best quality for intrazone calls and best bandwidth for interzone calls
C. ? virtual route is configured to be in different zone than the voice gateway channels and IP sets ? verify the customer has G.729A as part of CODEC profile ? ensure all zones at the site are configured with best quality for intrazone calls and best quality for interzone calls
D. ? the virtual route is configured to be in a different zone than voice gateway channels and IP Sets for each system ? verify the customer has G.729A as part of CODEC profile ? ensure all zones at the site are configured with best quality for intrazone calls and best bandwidth for interzone calls
Answer: D

5. A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 4.0 that they want to network with two other sites using the corporate WAN. Why must zones be configured with Element Manager before the Virtual Routes? (Choose two.)
A. Zones determine NCOS privileges on a given trunk.
B. Zones govern trunk groupings for TGAR assignment.
C. Zones help determine Best Bandwidth CODEC per virtual trunk call.
D. Zones manipulate CODEC selections and assigns bandwidth to a route.
E. Zones provide call blocking based on Bandwidth defined for inter- and intra-zone calls.
Answer: CE

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Exam : Microsoft 70-221
Title : Designing a Microsoft Windows 2000 Network Infrastructure

1. Which change should you make to the existing WAN for the North America region before
implementing the new network?
A. Install fully meshed site-to-site leased lines between all North America offices.
B. Increase the circuit bandwidth at the Los Angeles, Montreal, New York city and Washington DC, district offices.
C. Create a permanent virtual circuit (PVC) from each office to all other offices.
D. Increase the circuit bandwidth at the Portland Office.
Answer: D

2. Which client hardware should you use for the gate machines in the airports?
A. Windows Terminal.
B. New Pentium III client computers.
C. Existing 486 client computers from corporate headquarters.
D. Existing 3270 terminals.
Answer: A

3. How should you design the name registration strategy for Hanson brothers?
(Choose all that apply)
A. Configure all servers to register with WINS and DNS.
B. Configure all client computers to register directly with DNS.
C. Configure DHCP servers to register the A (host) records for Windows 2000 client computers with DNS.
D. Configure all servers to register only with DNS.
E. Configure DHCP servers to register the A (host) records for non Windows 2000 client computers with DNS.
F. Configure all client computers to register with WINS.
G. Configure only non Windows 2000 client computers to register with WINS.
Answer: AEF

4. How should you implement DHCP for the district offices in the Europe region?
A. In each district office, deploy a DHCP server that has one scope for the local subnet with 20 percent of addresses excluded. In the regional headquarters, deploy a DHCP server that has one scope for each district office with 80 percent of the address excluded.
B. In the regional headquarters, deploy a DHCP server that has one scope for each district office
C. In each office in the region, deploy a DHCP server that has one scope for the local subnet.
D. In each district office, deploy a DHCP server that has one scope for the local subnet with 20 percent of the address excluded. In the Corporate headquarters, deploy a DHCP server that has one scope for each district office with 80 percent of the addresses excluded.
Answer: A

5. What should you do to improve Internet connectivity for Hanson Brothers?
A. Configure all client computers to use existing proxy server in the Portland Office.
B. Configure an Internet connection in each regional headquarters.
C. Place a proxy server in each regional headquarter outside the United States.
D. Increase the bandwidth between the Portland office and each regional headquarters. Increase the bandwidth to the Internet service provider (ISP)
Answer: C

6. Which component or components must you place locally on the passenger lounge network? (Choose
all that apply)
A. Kiosk computer
B. Hub
C. Domain controller
D. DNS server
E. Routing and Remote access
F. Microsoft Proxy Server
G. DHCP Server
Answer: AB

7. You need to provide Hanson Brothers with a highly available DNS design. What should you do?
A. Create primary DNS zones for the Asia, Europe, LAmerica and SPacific zones on the DNS servers in the Corp domain
B. Create a primary DNS zone in each domain. Configure the DNS servers in the Asia, Europe, LAmerica, NAmerica, and SPacific domains as forwarded to each other.
C. Create a primary DNS zone in each domain as forwarders to the Asia, Europe, LAmerica, North America and SPacific domains.
D. Create a primary DNS zone in each domain. Create secondary DNS zones for the Corp zone on the DNS servers in the Asia, Europe, LAmerica, NAmerica and SPacific domains.
Answer: D

8. Which component or components will you need in Washington DC to complete Phase III? (Choose all
that apply)
A. DHCP Server
B. WINS Server
C. Hub
D. DNS server
E. Client hardware
F. Domain controller
G. Router
Answer: CEG

9. How should you design the Microsoft SQL Server environment?
A. Use one SQL Server computer
B. Use two SQL Server computers without database replication
C. Use two SQL Server computer with database replication
D. Use two clustered SQL Server computers.
Answer: D

10. Hanson Brothers needs to accommodate the Human Resources intranet application in the new
network. What should you do?
A. In the Portland Office, deploy a distributed file system (Dfs) root server that has a child node for each region, In each regional headquarters, deploy a Dfs replica server that corresponds to the child node for that region
B. In each regional headquarters, deploy a distributed file system (Dfs) root server that has a human Resources child node. In the Portland Office, deploy a Dfs replica server.
C. In the Portland Office, deploy a distributed file system (Dfs) root server. In each regional headquarters, deploy a child node.
D. In each regional headquarters, deploy a distributed file system (Dfs) root server. In the Portland office, deploy a child node.
Answer: A

11. You need to allow the pilots access to the intranet Web server, what should you do? (Choose all that
apply)
A. Deploy proxy services
B. Deploy Active Directory
C. Use remote access policies
D. Use the access by user administrative model to control remote access
E. Deploy certificate services
Answer: BCE

12. Which five components should be deployed or installed during Phase 1?
(There are 10 answer choices. Choose five)
A. DNS Server
B. Domain Controller
C. Active Directory
D. Terminal Services
E. Routing and Remote Access
F. Microsoft SQL Server
G. TCP/IP
H. 3270 emulation software
I. DHCP server
J. Microsoft SNA Server
Answer: DFGHJ

13. You need to provide a secure DHCP design that will minimize the risk of unauthorized DHCP servers
appearing on the network. What should you do? (Choose all that apply)
A. Place all members of the Regional Administrator team into the DHCP Administrators group.
B. Move the DHCP service from member servers to domain controllers
C. Place a DHCP relay agent on each DHCP server to propagate DHCPINFORM messages.
D. Replace all Windows NT4 DHCP servers with Windows 2000 DHCP servers.
E. Place all users into the DHCP Users group.
Answer: AD

14. Which strategy or strategies should you use for the DHCP design at the airports? (Choose all that
apply)
A. In each passenger lounge, deploy one DHCP server that has one scope
B. In the 10.1.0.0 network in Boston, deploy two DHCP servers Configure each server so that it has 12 scopes Configure an exclusion for 50 percent of the addresses in each scope
C. In the 192.168.1.0 network in Boston, deploy one DHCP server that has four scopes
D. In the 192.168.1.0 network in Boston, deploy one DHCP server that has one Scope.
E. In each airport, deploy one DHCP server that has scope with 25 percent of the address space excluded. In the Boston headquarters, deploy one DHCP server that has 12 scopes Configure an exclusion for 75 percent of the addresses in each scope
F. In the 10.1.0.0 network in Boston, deploy two DHCP servers Configure each server so that it has eight scopes Configure an exclusion for 50 percent of the addresses in each scope
Answer: DF

Microsoft 70-633 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: 70-633
Exam Name: TS: MS Office Project Server 2007, Managing Projects
Questions and Answers: 141 Q&A
Free Microsoft 70-633 Practice Exams
　
　
Exam : Microsoft 70-633
Title : TS: MS Office Project Server 2007, Managing Projects

1. You are preparing a project plan in Microsoft Office Project Professional 2007. You are collaborating with your colleagues in the plan development process.
You need to store the project plan in a central location without its assignments appearing on the My Tasks page for any resource.
What should you do?
A. Publish the project plan to Microsoft Office Project Server 2007.
B. Save a workspace for the project plan in Microsoft Office Project Professional 2007.
C. Save the project plan to Microsoft Office Project Server 2007.
D. Provision a project workspace site in Microsoft Office Project Server 2007.
Answer: C

2. You are one of a group of project managers. Each project manager has several projects saved to Microsoft Office Project Server 2007. Some of these projects are in the planning phase, and their assignments are not visible on the My Tasks page for any resource in Microsoft Office Project Web Access.
You need to see a list of all of your projects with assignments that are visible on the My Tasks page for any resource.
What should you do?
A. In Microsoft Office Project Professional 2007, retrieve the list of projects from the Project Server Published Store.
B. In Microsoft Office Project Professional 2007, retrieve the list of projects from the Project Server Working Store.
C. In Project Web Access, display the Proposals and Activities page.
D. In Project Web Access, review the list of sites and workspaces for which you have permissions.
Answer: A

3. You have a list of tasks to manage by using Microsoft Office Project Server 2007.
In Microsoft Office Project Web Access, you need to detail these tasks in a manner that allows for assignment of resources and promotion to a project plan.
What should you do?
A. Create a proposal, and then assign resources to tasks.
B. Create a Microsoft SharePoint task list, and then make it visible to senior management.
C. Create a Microsoft SharePoint task list, and then make it visible to the relevant resources.
D. Add tasks to your timesheet to show the proposed work.
Answer: A

4. You create a proposal in Microsoft Office Project Web Access. You want to publish the proposal, although resource assignments are not yet approved.
You need to assign named resources without changing their availability in Microsoft Office Project Server 2007.
What should you do?
A. Assign generic resources to the proposal, and then publish it.
B. Assign team resources to the proposal, and then publish it.
C. Publish the proposal, and publish the resource plan.
D. Publish the proposal, and save the resource plan.
Answer: D

5. A project plan is published in Microsoft Office Project Server 2007. The resources include contractors who do not have Project Server user accounts.
In Microsoft Office Project Professional 2007, you need to save a version of the file that allows the contractors to modify your plan prior to publishing it.
What should you do?
A. Save the project to Project Server, and then e-mail the URL of your Project Server to the contractors.
B. Publish the project plan to Project Server, and then e-mail the URL of your Project Server to the contractors.
C. Select the Work Offline option, save the file, and then e-mail the URL of the Project Server to the contractors.
D. Save the project plan using the Save for Sharing option, and then e-mail the file to the contractors.
Answer: D

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A

CompTIA A+ 220-604 Exam(Depot Tech designation pathway)

• Exam Number/Code : 220-604
• Exam Name : CompTIA A+ 220-604 Exam(Depot Tech designation pathway)
• Questions and Answers : 360 Q&As

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Exam : CompTIA 220-604
Title : CompTIA A+ 220-604 Exam (Depot Tech designation pathway)

1. A customer has an older laptop and wants to have the processor upgraded to make the laptop run faster. Which of the following would be the BEST action to take?
A. Fill out a work order for the customer and upgrade the laptop.
B. Inform the customer that upgrading RAM would be a better option.
C. Tell the customer that the laptop cannot be upgraded to increase performance and a new laptop should be purchased.
D. Inform the customer to avoid using the laptop on battery power and performance will improve.
Answer: B

2. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of a printing problem if a user is receiving an error before a job is seen in the print queue?
A. Print spooler service is stopped.
B. Too many documents are being printed at once.
C. The size of the document being printed is too large.
D. There is a mechanical problem with the printer.
Answer: A

3. Which of the following could be installed to increase the processing capacity of some office printers?
A. duplexer
B. ROM
C. memory
D. Ethernet card
Answer: C

4. Which of the following describes the difference between a network hub and a network switch?
A. Hubs repeat all traffic and switches analyze and intelligently direct the traffic.
B. Hubs intelligently direct traffic and switches repeat all traffic.
C. A switch has an uplink port to add another switch for expansion. A hub does not.
D. A hub has an uplink port to add another hub for expansion. A switch does not.
Answer: A

5. A user reports that a local ink jet printer is not printing. The user has a signed driver, the printers hardware is working, ink is full, print heads are clean, and the printer is connected correctly via USB. The print queue has 20 documents waiting for the printer. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem?
A. The print head has failed.
B. The printer is set to offline mode in Windows XP.
C. There is insufficient memory installed in the printer.
D. Windows firewall is blocking packets being sent to the printer.
Answer: B

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HCNE

Huawei-3Com Certified Network Engineer

• Exam Number/Code : GB0-183
• Exam Name : Huawei-3Com Certified Network Engineer
• Questions and Answers : 526 Q&As

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Exam : HuaWei GB0-183
Title : HuaWei-3Com Certificated Network Engineer

1. A network protocol is a set of rules and conventions that prescribe how network devices inter-communicate. The communication parties shall understand and abide the protocol. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: t

2. Common routing protocols are ( ).
A.IPX
B.OSPF
C.RIP
D.IP
Answer: bc

3. Both the transport layer and the data link layer perform error check. ( )
T.True
F.False
Answer: t

4. Which layer of the OSI reference model implements encryption. ( )
A.Physical layer
B.Transport layer
C.Session layer
D.Presentation layer
Answer: d

5. Frame Relay adopts ( ) as the switching method.
A.Routing
B.Circuit switching
C.Fast switching
D.Packet switching
Answer: d

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Business

Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0

• Exam Number/Code : QAWI201V3.0
• Exam Name : Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0
• Questions and Answers : 82 Q&As

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Exam : Business Objects QAWI201
Title : Business Objects Certified Professional Web Intelligence XI 3.0

1. Which method should you use to group query filters together to form one AND statement?
A. Drag the queries together
B. Drag the query filters to the Group panel
C. Select the filters, right-click and select Group
D. Select the filters, then click the Group Filters button on the toolbar
Answer: A

2. Which option can you use to convert a table block into a chart in Web Intelligence Rich Client?
A. Right-click the table block and select "Turn To"
B. Click Format > Charts and select "Convert to Chart"
C. Right-click the table block and select "Convert to Chart"
D. Click Tools > Charts and select "Change Table to Chart"
Answer: A

3. Which two break properties can you use when setting Break Priority? (Choose two.)
A. Order Breaks
B. Vertical Breaks
C. Crosstab Breaks
D. Horizontal Breaks
Answer: BD

4. Where is a Web Intelligence variable stored?
A. In the cell
B. In the document
C. In the Metadata Cube
D. In the Central Management Server (CMS)
Answer: B

5. You are working with a previously saved document and you have deleted a logical operator. Which two methods can you use to recover the logical operator? (Choose two.)
A. Rebuild the filters.
B. Click the Undo button in the Query panel.
C. From the Tools menu, select Recover Operator.
D. Close the Query panel without executing and then open the query.
Answer: AD

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Citrix Other Certification

Citrix Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition: Administration

• Exam Number/Code : 1Y0-308
• Exam Name : Citrix Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition: Administration
• Questions and Answers : 134 Q&As

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Exam : Citrix 1Y0-308
Title : Citrix Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition: Administration

1. Which two steps should an administrator take to remove an Access Gateway appliance from an Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition deployment? (Choose two.)
A. The administrator should execute the "Remove Access Gateway" task from the "Gateway Appliances" node in the Access Management Console.
B. The administrator should restart at least one Advanced Access Control server in the farm after configuring the Access Gateway appliance to be removed.
C. The administrator should configure the Access Gateway appliance server so that it no longer points itself to an Advanced Access Control server in the deployment.
D. The administrator should uncheck the "Access Gateway" role checkbox for the Access Gateway appliance to be removed in the "Manage Server Roles" dialog of the Access Management Console.
Answer: AC

2. For an environment in which HTML Preview will be enabled for Microsoft Office, which task must be completed prior to installing the Advanced Access Control software?
A. The Citrix Activation Engine must be restarted.
B. A license must be installed on the license server.
C. Microsoft Word, Excel, Visio and PowerPoint must be installed on the server.
D. Microsoft Word, Excel, Visio, PowerPoint and Outlook must be installed on the server.
Answer: C

3. When using a Microsoft SQL Server for the configuration database of an access server farm, which two details must be specified during the initial configuration of the farm? (Choose two.)
A. The name of the SQL Server
B. The name of the access server farm
C. The FQDN of Access Gateway appliance
D. The name of a user account included in the Administrators Group
Answer: AB

4. Scenario: A Network Administrator configured access for external employees connecting through an Access Gateway 4.5 Advanced Edition implementation into the corporate network. These employees require access to documents in the corporate network. The administrator implemented a policy that will ensure that the employees open the documents using applications that are installed locally on their PCs. Which of the listed action controls did the administrator implement?
A. Access
B. Live Edit
C. Download
D. File Type Association
Answer: B

5. Which network adapter requires a static IP address when configuring internal access for Access Gateway in a single network interface?
A. Eth0 is the only network interface that can be used.
B. Eth1 is the only network interface that can be used.
C. Eth2 is the only network interface that can be used.
D. Eth3 is the only network interface that can be used.
Answer: A

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