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Exam Number/Code: HP0-553
Exam Name: Servicing HP Entry-level Integrity Servers
Questions and Answers: 120 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
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Exam : HP HP0-553
Title : Servicing HP Entry-level Integrity Servers

1. An engineer needs to backup the boot disk (dkb200) on OpenVMS. He creates a new device with the name "dka100" and mounts it. What command is used to do the backup?
A. fbackup -f dkb200: dka100
B. copy dkb200: dka100
C. backup/image dkb200: dka100
D. dd dkb200: dka100
Answer: C

2. Which I/O ports are located on the system board on a HP Integrity rx2600 server? Select THREE.
A. System LAN port
B. console LAN port
C. SCSI port
D. DB-25 port
E. VGA port
F. USB port
Answer: ACF

3. What is a function of ODE?
A. MAPPER lists the hardware installed in the server
B. CPU_EXER tests the CPU for cache problems
C. MEM_EXER tests the memory for MBE
D. DOWNLOAD upgrades EFI firmware
Answer: A

4. What is the official HP-UX tool on an HP Integrity server to perform an OS image backup?
A. fbackup
B. system imager
C. Ignite-UX
D. Data Protector
E. recovery CD/DVD
Answer: C

5. What is the correct way of updating the Host Bus Adapter (HBA) firmware?
A. there is no way to update firmware
B. replace ROM on the interface card
C. use online/offline tools
D. replace card with newer version
Answer: C

6. How can I read the description for the OpenVMS command "show devices" on HP Integrity server?
A. rtfmf show devices
B. help show devices
C. man show devices
D. show devices -h
Answer: B

7. What is the proper way to update SAL/PAL firmware?
A. update SAL/PAL firmware as separate items
B. replace the system board
C. load the complete firmware bundle
D. SIDK how to update SAL/PAL firmware
Answer: C

8. What is the MP/iLO command to power cycle the system?
A. reset entity – RE
B. power status – PS
C. power control – PC
D. power cycle entity – PE
Answer: C

9. Which MP/iLO commands are used to verify the actual system state?
A. system status (ss), secure option (so), LAN status (ls), access console (co)
B. LAN status (ls), LAN configuration (lc), secure option (so), set access (sa)
C. system status (ss), access console (co), power status (ps), virtual front panel (vfp)
D. system revision (sysrev), virtual front panel (VFP), LAN configuration (lc), secure option (so)
Answer: C

10. What is the proper sequence to update system firmware on a running system? Select TWO.
A. place firmware to EFI-partition, mount EFI-partition, execute firmware file from the EFI-partition
B. insert CD with firmware image, shutdown OS, enter EFI shell, execute firmware file from the CD
C. shutdown OS, enter EFI shell, open network connection to FTP server and execute the firmware update from the FTP server
D. place firmware to EFI-partition from OS, shutdown OS, enter EFI shell, execute firmware file from the EFI-partition
E. shutdown OS, interrupt boot process, mount CD/DVD, follow the instruction during the update process
Answer: BD

11. What is a feature of the nvrboot.efi utility?
A. backup boot disk
B. install new utilities
C. save boot option configuration
D. copy on NVRAM command
Answer: C

12. What LINUX command is used to get an I/O list on HP Integrity server?
A. ioscan
B. showdev
C. lsdev
D. scanpci
E. listio
Answer: D

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Exam : HuaWei GB0-183Chinese
Title : HuaWei-3Com Certificated Network Engineer

1. 在 Quidway VRP 命令行中用哪个命令可以测试数据包从发送主机到目的地所经过的网关（ ）
A. ping
B. tracert
C. show path
D. display path
Answer: B

2. 帧中继采用（ ）作为交换方式。
A. 路由
B. 电路交换
C. 快速交换
D. 分组交换
Answer: D

3. 在 OSI 七层参考模型中，可以完成加密功能的是（ ）
A. 物理层
B. 传输层
C. 会话层
D. 表示层
Answer: D

4. 下列关于 OSPF 的说法，哪些是正确的（ ）
A. 路由变化收敛速度快
B. 无路由自环，支持变长子网掩码
C. 支持等值路由和区域划分
D. 提供路由分级管理
E. 支持验证，支持以组播地址发送协议报文
Answer: ABCDE

5. 常见的路由协议有（ ）
A. IPX
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IP
Answer: BC

6. RIP 使用（ ）作为传输协议，端口号 520 。
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. PPP
Answer: B

7. PPP 的 CHAP 认证采用了什么加密算法（ ）
A. MD5
B. DES
C. RSA
D. SHA
Answer: A

8. 在帧中继网络中，超过 Bc （承诺突发量）的用户数据一定会被丢弃。
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

9. 网络协议是为了使计算机网络中的不同设备能进行数据通信而预先制定的一套通信双方互相了解和共同遵守的格式和约定。
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

10. Quidway 系列路由器 vrp 3.4 版本下保存当前配置的命令是（ ）
A. write
B. save
C. copy
D. reset
Answer: B

11. Quidway AR 系列路由器，可以用很多种方式进行升级，请问哪一种不是其支持的升级方法（ ）
A. xmodem
B. ftp
C. tftp
D. HGMP
Answer: D

12. 两台路由器背靠背直连，配置如下，路由器之间是否能够通讯（ ）
A. 能
B. 不能
C. 信息不足，无法判断
Answer: A

13. 传输层和数据链路层都会负责差错校检（ ）
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

14. 两台路由器背靠背直连，配置如下，路由器之间是否能够通讯（ ）
A. 能
B. 不能
C. 信息不足，无法判断
Answer: B

Other Nortel Certification

BCM50 Rls.3.0 & BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 Sales Engineering

• Exam Number/Code : 920-334
• Exam Name : BCM50 Rls.3.0 & BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 Sales Engineering
• Questions and Answers : 62 Q&As

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Exam : Nortel 920-334
Title : BCM50 Rls.3.0 & BCM200/400 Rls.4.0 Sales Engineering

1. Which encryption method does a BCM system support when IPSec is configured on it?
A. PKI
B. RC4
C. AES
D. PPTP
Answer: C

2. A customer has several remote locations that they want to securely connect through the Internet. You explain that using IPSec tunnels between these sites would provide this security; however, they are concerned about it being able to handle all of the remote locations. What is the maximum number of remote sites that can be connected to a BCM50 using IPSec tunnels?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16
Answer: A

3. BCM supports a queue service discipline that allows packets to be serviced in an absolute priority fashion or using a weighted-fair-queuing scheduler. This service discipline ensures that packets in the highest priority queue are serviced quickly without starving the lower priority queues. How many quality of service (QoS) queues does BCM Rls. 4.0 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 7
Answer: D

4. A remote user has the ability to connect to an ISP and then to a specific route into a BCM that is configured for IPSec Remote User. The remote user can also print locally even while connected remotely to the BCM. Which functionality does this describe?
A. split routing
B. dual routing
C. split tunneling
D. dual tunneling
Answer: C

5. Fallback is a feature that allows a call to progress when a VoIP trunk is unavailable or is not providing adequate quality of service (QoS). By enabling PSTN fallback, you allow the system to check the availability of the VoIP trunks and then switch the call to a PSTN line. For the PSTN fallback to work on a suitable bandwidth, which two statements must be true on a BCM 200 platform? (Choose two.)
A. The QoS Monitor must be enabled.
B. The jitter buffer must be configured.
C. The Transmit threshold must be set.
D. Proactive Voice Quality Monitoring (PVQM) must be enabled.
E. IP sets must be configured to use the G.723 Codec.
Answer: AC

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Exam Number/Code: 1T6-540
Exam Name: Advanced Troubleshooting with Infinistream Network Mgmt
Questions and Answers: 120 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
Test Register: Pearson VUE or Prometric
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Exam : Network General Corp
1T6-540
Title : Advanced Troubleshooting with InfiniStream Network Mgmt

1. To see user names sent to an FTP server, you should view _______.
A. the Expert Service layer objects
B. the Expert Application layer objects
C. the Advanced tab in the mining interface (Quick Select)
D. the Names tab in the mining interface (Quick Select)
Answer: B

2. Most Remote Procedure Calls (RPCs) listen on _________ ports?
A. all well-known ports
B. any port below 512
C. dynamically assigned ports, usually below port 1024
D. dynamically assigned ports, usually above port 1023
Answer: D

3. For testing, it is useful to convert your _______ into _______.
A. data / units of measurement
B. hypothesis / an if-then statement
C. hypothesis / a conclusion
D. conclusion / if-then statement
Answer: B

4. Mining FTP frames for both the Control and Data connections is difficult, because:
A. The server listens on TCP/20 and on ephemeral addresses that are difficult to predict.
B. The server listens on TCP/21 and multiple addresses that cannot be predicted.
C. The server listens on TCP/21 and ephemeral ports that are difficult to predict.
D. Many implementations of FTP exist that use varying well-known ports.
Answer: C

5. Maintaining a baseline can aid in detecting bandwidth denial of service attacks by:
A. Listing status codes associated with denial of service.
B. Revealing significant changes in protocol activity and bandwidth through comparison.
C. Showing ports known to be associated with bandwidth denial of service.
D. Listing source IP addresses know to send denial of service attacks.
Answer: B

6. Time duration and speed are _______.
A. primary limitations of mining and analysis
B. not relevant to InfiniStream
C. only related to Expert analysis
D. relevant, but secondary issues
Answer: A

7. Consider this mining filter. Which description most accurately describes what it does?
A. It includes all packets to and from network 192.168.1.0/24.
B. It includes all packets that have sources and destinations within network 192.168.1.0/24.
C. It includes all packets that are not to or from network 192.168.1.0/24.
D. Nothing. No packets would pass this filter.
Answer: C

8. Applications that use ephemeral ports on both sides of a connection are difficult to mine, because:
A. The ephemeral ports cannot be predicted
B. They all use the same port, TCP/1024
C. The well-known ports cannot be predicted
D. The ephemeral ports can be predicted but the port pairings are always different
Answer: A

9. Consider this illustration of a data mining filter. What is wrong with it?
A. The filter only allows packets that are sent to HTTP servers on their well-known port. It would only show commands without replies. This filter is incomplete.
B. The filter only allows packets that are both to and from the well-known port TCP/80 (HTTP). Both source and destination port cannot be 80. Nothing would pass the filter.
C. It would also allow UDP packets to and from port 80 (HTTP), which does not make sense, since HTTP is a TCP-based protocol.
D. Nothing. It will capture normal data to and from TCP/80 (HTTP) servers.
Answer: B

10. Which of the following is NOT typically associated with network security auditing?
A. Inspection of passwords
B. Examining a network for signs of misuse
C. Troubleshooting network application efficiency
D. Looking for conformance to policy
Answer: C

11. The easiest way to identify data for further analysis is to _______.
A. create an alias
B. group multiple protocols together
C. sort on port number
D. select all ephemeral ports
Answer: C

12. A one to many relationship is indicative of:
A. Backdoors
B. Clients sending email to a relay server
C. Password guessing
D. Peer-to-Peer
Answer: D

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Title : Storage Networking Solutions Version 3

1. A customer has a MetroCluster configuration for its Lotus Notes mail data. Site A fails
and Site B takes over. How does this affect Windows users and their CIFS connections?
A. Setup must be run on Site B, redefining the previous IP addresses used by Site A so
that it can service both its own and site A’s IP addresses.
B. Site B host ACLs must be updated for the failed-over Windows connections.
C. The windows users must re-establish shares using Site B addresses and hostnames.
D. Site B takes over site A’s hostnames and addresses and continues to serve its own
addresses and hostnames.
Answer: D

2. Which type of security should be implemented in a heterogeneous environment to control
device connection?
A. WWN Access Control Lists
B. NTFS with SAMBA
C. LDAP hosted on a Linux server
D. NFS with Windows userID mapping
Answer: A

3. A customer is using a CAD program on UNIX clients. The client needs a file system I/O
data storage. Which protocol should be used on the N series?
A. FCP
B. iSCSI
C. CIFS
D. NFS
Answer: D

4. A customer has five divisions in a single data center. They want a separate fabric for each
of these divisions. They also want all tape devices to be corporate resources that are
shared across the SAN fabrics. Each of these fabrics must have the ability to expand and
support up to 239 domains. The customer wants a cost-effective solution that minimizes
the number of major physical SAN components, such as switches and directors. Which
solution meets these requirements?
A. one Cisco MDS 9509 director with the VSAN feature
B. five IBM SAN256M directors and an IBM SAN24M-1 switch interconnected by an
IBM SAN16M-R router
C. one IBM SAN M14 director and an IBM SAN16B-2 switch interconnected by an IBM
SAN16M-R router
D. five IBM SAN256B directors and an IBM SAN16B-2 switch interconnected by an
IBM SAN16B-R router
Answer: A

5. Which Domain ID range accommodates all IBM SAN switches?
A. 128 to 256
B. 1 to 256
C. 97 to 127
D. 1 to 239
Answer: C

6. A customer wants to assign a relative priority to a volume on an N7600 running Data
ONTAP 7.2 to cause accesses to that volume to receive a priority that is higher or lower
than that of other volumes on the storage system. Which feature accomplishes this?
A. Virtual Vol
B. FlexVol with RAID-DP
C. VolShare
D. FlexShare
Answer: D

7. Which IBM N series licensed feature enables a writable replica of the flexible volume?
A. Snapshot
B. SnapMirror
C. FlexCache
D. FlexClone
Answer: D

8. The customer has Windows servers and applications that use Block I/O. They do not
want to implement a SAN. Which configuration would meet their requirements?
A. iSCSI HBA and DS4800
B. iSCSI HBA and SVC
C. Microsoft iSCSI initiator and N3300
D. Microsoft iSCSI initiator and SVC
Answer: C

9. A customer has 24 servers, an eight-host port IBM DS4800, and eight single-port
fabric-attached tape drives that are all SAN-attached. The customer needs redundant disk
connectivity and connection to tape. To follow best practice, what is the minimum
number of 32-port switches needed to implement a LAN-free backup solution?
A. 8
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

10. Which product allows a Storage Administrator to set storage utilization alerts for the
DS8000, DS4800, SAN Volume Controller, and EMC DMX?
A. IBM Total Productivity Center for Replication
B. IBM Total Productivity Center for Disk
C. IBM Total Productivity Center for Data
D. IBM Total Productivity Center for Fabric
Answer: B

11. Which N series feature should be used for regulatory compliance and long-term integrity
of data?
A. SnapWorm
B. LockVol
C. SnapLock
D. SnapProtect
Answer: C

12. Which feature needs to be purchased as a separate license?
A. Snapshot
B. SnapBackup
C. SnapRestore
D. SnapMover
Answer: C

13. Which is a key benefit of the IBM System Storage N series Write Anywhere File Layout
(WAFL) design and is the main contributor to better performance?
A. The copy-on-write feature allows WAFL to avoid duplicating blocks of data, thus
increasing performance.
B. The file placement algorithms in WAFL allow the repair of high file fragmentation
concurrently.
C. Keeping metadata in files makes it easy to increase the size of the file system on the
fly. When a new disk is added, the N serie automatically increases the size of the
metadata files.
D. The write-anywhere design allows WAFL to operate efficiently with RAID by
scheduling multiple writes to the same RAID stripe whenever possible.
Answer: D

14. A customer wants IBM support notified immediately in case of an N series failure.
Which feature meets this customer’s needs?
A. SNMP alert
B. AutoSupport
C. Remote LAN Module
D. RemoteConsoleSupport
Answer: B

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Exam : IBM 000-962
Title : Storage Sales for High-End Tape Version 1

1. A customer is concerned about the risk of an extended data center outage and the need to continue operations during the outage.
Which type of solution addresses this concern?
A.tape backup
B.high availability
C.disaster recovery
D.local off-site tape facility
Answer: C

2. A salesperson is visiting a customer who has never worked with IBM tape storage. During the first meeting, the salesperson introduces the IBM TS7700 as a potential solution.
How would the salesperson convince the customer during this meeting that the TS7700 is a viable solution?
A.with the offer of a trial
B.with IBM Product Roadmaps
C.with customer success stories
D.with tools like Tape Magic and Batch Magic
Answer: C

3. What should an IBM sales representative use to define the value of IBM to the client?
A.company financial report
B.industry-leading channel programs
C.IBM brand recognition and reputation
D.integrated solutions and breadth of product line
Answer: D

4. A customer can afford to be down for a day, should a disaster occur. The customer is looking for the lowest-cost solution for disaster recovery.
Which solution meets these requirements?
A.use a VTS in the primary site to LTO in the disaster recovery site
B.use a VTS in the primary site to Magstar in the disaster recovery site
C.use Peer-to-Peer between two TS7700 tape storage servers in the disaster recovery site
D.use tape cartridges between two TS3500 tape storage libraries in the disaster recovery site
Answer: D

5. A mainframe customer wants the highest level of availability, serviceability, and performance for a tape subsystem.
Which solution meets the customer’s needs?
A.TS7520
B.TS1120 with TS3310
C.TS7700 with TS3500 and TS1120
D.TS3500 HA with 3592-C06 and TS1120
Answer: D

6. Which topic should be discussed with the customer prior to designing a backup and recovery solution?
A.annual IT budget
B.off-site tape recovery
C.number of tape operators
D.Recovery Point Objective (RPO)
Answer: D

7. A new customer wants to discuss IT strategy. The customer has expressed interest in tape libraries and currently runs UNIX servers with individual tape drives.
What is the most appropriate question to ask in the initial conversation with this customer?
A.What is driving this need?
B.What is the customer’s storage growth rate?
C.Does the customer have any Windows servers?
D.What is the total usable capacity on the customer’s current servers?
Answer: A

8. An open systems customer wants the highest level of availability, serviceability, and performance for a tape subsystem.
Which solution meets the customer’s needs?
A.TS7520
B.TS7700 with TS3500
C.TS1120 with TS33100
D.TS3500 HA with TS1120
Answer: D

9. Which process will determine if a customer has the staff resources required to support an enterprise tape solution?
A.Executive Briefing
B.Pre-Sales Solutions Assurance
C.Post-Sales Solutions Assurance
D.Business Partner Innovation Center Briefing
Answer: B

10. A utility customer wants to reduce the number of tape mounts they perform.
Which technology should be proposed to this customer?
A.DS6800 disk
B.LTO-4 tape drives
C.Magstar tape drives
D.virtual tape server
Answer: D

11. An IBM storage sales representative is talking with a customer about requirements for a new tape subsystem.
What is the most important question for the sales representative to ask?
A.How much money is in the budget?
B.What is driving the need for a new enterprise tape sub-system?
C.Which tape storage does the customer currently have implemented?
D.Which server platform will be attached to the new tape sub-system?
Answer: B

12. Which tape assessment tool requires minimal information from the customer?
A.zTPM
B.Tape Magic
C.Batch Magic
D.Capacity Magic
Answer: B

13. A customer has been told that the order has left the plant. The customer wants to know when the order is scheduled to arrive on site.
Which term does IBM use to indicate this date?
A.CRAD
B.PSSD
C.RSSD
D.CAD
Answer: D

14. A customer environment contains different servers and operating systems, which need to connect to centralized storage.
How should a salesperson verify that the solution will be supported by IBM?
A.perform a proof-of-concept
B.consult the operations manual
C.check the interoperability matrix
D.verify the solution by using the available IBM Redbooks
Answer: C

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Exam Number/Code: COG-125
Exam Name: IBM Cognos 8 BI Data Warehouse Developer
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Exam : IBM COG-125
Title : IBM Cognos 8 BI Data Warehouse Developer

1. A text file contains a row at the top that only identifies the names of the columns. In order for this file to be processed successfully, what must the developer do in SQLTXT Designer?
A. Specify CR as the record delimiter.
B. Specify NL as the record delimiter.
C. Specify that the header row ignore limit is one.
D. Specify that the file contains one header line.
Answer: D

2. Which of the following can a developer do with SQLTXT Designer?
A. Select data from multiple tables using joins.
B. Select data from multiple text files using joins.
C. Specify row and column delimiters.
D. Specify sort order for the flat file.
Answer: C

3. A developer wants to move a selection of components from a development environment to a production environment. What should the developer do?
A. Create a catalog backup file (.ctg).
B. Create a backup of the catalog database.
C. Create a package file (.pkg) that contains the components.
D. Create a SQL script to transfer the components.
Answer: C

4. What can Data Manager be used for?
A. To create a Cognos 8 content store.
B. To extract operational data from multiple sources.
C. To create dashboards in Report Studio.
D. To build a Cognos Planning application.
Answer: B

5. Which object is required to create a Data Manager catalog?
A. Cognos 8 package
B. Fact build
C. JobStream
D. Database
Answer: D

6. A developer wants to create a connection to a published Framework Manager package in a Data Manager catalog. Before this connection can be created successfully, what must the developer do?
A. Add an LDAP or NTLM namespace in Cognos Configuration.
B. Configure Data Manager to access the Cognos 8 Gateway and Dispatcher URLs.
C. Log on to Cognos Connection as a user in the Data Manager Authors role.
D. Create a data source connection to the Cognos 8 data store.
Answer: B

7. A DataStream includes two different data sources: "Golf Equipment" and "Other Equipment." For each incoming row, the developer wants to add a value that indicates the data source that the row comes from. What should the developer do?
A. Create a static member for each data source in the underlying hierarchy.
B. Add a literal to each data source that references the data source name.
C. Specify the source identity property for each data source in the DataStream.
D. Add a derivation to the transformation model to create a new column.
Answer: B

8. Which of the following is true of packages in Data Manager?
A. User-defined folders cannot be exported.
B. During importing, duplicate components are automatically renamed.
C. User-defined folders cannot be imported.
D. During importing, dependent components are automatically selected.
Answer: D

9. What distinguishes an OLTP system from a data warehouse?
A. An OLTP system captures and processes original business transactions, while a data warehouse does not.
B. A data warehouse captures and processes original business transactions, while an OLTP system does not.
C. An OLTP system is used to transform, clean, and combine operational data, while a data warehouse is not.
D. A data warehouse is fully normalized, while an OLTP system is fully denormalized.
Answer: A

10. A developer wants to create a connection to a database in a Data Manager catalog. When creating this connection, which of the following must the developer specify?
A. A default schema name.
B. Connection method that must be used to connect to the database.
C. Names, locations, and port numbers for the SOAP and socket servers.
D. User ID and pasword for the Cognos 8 content store database.
Answer: B

11. A developer has added a data source connection to a Data Manager catalog. This connection points to a relational database. The developer wants to view the contents of this database, such as the number of tables that it contains. What tool could the administrator use?
A. SQLTerm
B. SQLTXT Designer
C. ODBC Administrator
D. Reference Explorer
Answer: A

12. What kind of tool is Data Manager?
A. ASP
B. DBMS
C. ETL
D. ERP
Answer: C

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Exam Number/Code: 4h0-435
Exam Name: hyperion financial management v3.51 exam
Questions and Answers: 184 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
Test Register: Pearson VUE or Prometric
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Exam : Hyperion Solutions 4H0-435
Title : Hyperion Financial Management v3.51 Exam

1. You are adding an Entity member to a metadata file. Which attribute, in addition to the Member attribute, must the user add in order to load the metadata file?
A. Description
B. DefCurrency
C. Security Class
D. SecurityAsPartner
Answer: B

2. A client wants to optimize the performance of user authentication in their environment. Most users are stored in the iPlanet LDAP server named earth. Within the css.properties file, which search order best meets their needs?
A. com.hyperion.css.searchorder =
?(ldap://earth:389/dc=users,dc=com(ntlm?earth(msad?(ldap://10.0.0.4:389/dc=users:dc=com
B. com.hyperion.css.searchorder =
?(ntlm?earth(msad?(ldap://earth:389/dc=users,dc=com(ldap://10.0.0.4:389/dc=users:dc=com
C. com.hyperion.css.searchorder =
?(ntlm?earth(msad?ldap://10.0.0.4:389/dc=users:dc=com(ldap://earth:389/dc=users,dc=com
D. com.hyperion.css.searchorder =
?(ntlm?earth(ldap://earth:389/dc=users,dc=com(msad?ldap://10.0.0.4:389/dc=users:dc=com
Answer: A

3. A user needs to create an integration that will allow a master application to overwrite a sub application’s values, but not the reverse. How is this accomplished?
A. Mark the source application as read only.
B. Define the source application as master.
C. Choose the override check box in the integration definition.
D. Define the destination application as slave to the source application.
Answer: C

4. What are two types of member lists? (Choose two.)
A. system
B. optional
C. dynamic
D. end-user
Answer: AC

5. Which three permissions can End Users be assigned for Report Groups in Hyperion Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. View
B. Read
C. Modify
D. Owner
E. Update
Answer: BDE

6. Where is a Hub Data integration group executed for an HFM Administrator?
A. the Hub Integration Console
B. the Manage Data web screen within HFM
C. the Hub Integration deployment executable
D. from a HAL deployment which calls the Hub integration
Answer: B

7. What can be extracted using Extended Analytics? (Choose two.)
A. data
B. metadata
C. incremental data
D. metadata changes
Answer: AB

8. When a Consolidate All With Data is run, what best describes the result?
A. A consolidation is run for all descendants.
B. A consolidation is run for all descendants with data.
C. A calculation is run for all impacted descendants with data.
D. A consolidation is run for all impacted descendants with data.
Answer: B

9. In a Web Data Entry Form script, what is the proper syntax for calling an Account list named IncomeStatement?
A. A{IncomeStatement}
B. A#{IncomeStatement}
C. A#.IncomeStatement
D. A#IncomeStatement
E. A[IncomeStatement]
Answer: A

10. Registering the Report server with Hub allows you to set up links to related content with which three products? (Choose three.)
A. Hyperion Central
B. Hyperion Analyzer
C. Hyperion Strategic Finance
D. Hyperion Application Builder
Answer: ABD

11. In which Value dimension element can the HS.Con function write data?
A. [Elimination]
B. [Contribution]
C. [Parent Total]
D. <Parent Currency>
Answer: A

12. When creating an Intercompany Matching Report, which two dimensions appear when Add is selected for Account Entities or Account Partners? (Choose two.)
A. ICP
B. Entity
C. Value
D. Account
E. Custom (1..4)
Answer: DE

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Exam Name: Advanced SAN Architecture
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