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Exam : Cisco 642-971
Title : Data Center Networking Infrastructure Design Specialist

1. Your customer plans to deploy FWSM and IDSM modules in the aggregation layer. Which design should you avoid?
A. Layer 3
B. InfiniBand
C. Layer 2 loop-free
D. Layer 2 looped square
E. Layer 2 looped triangle
Answer: A

2. Refer to the exhibit. What do you need to configure to prevent spanning-tree loops from occurring between the two FWSMs?
A. FWSMs in transparent mode
B. ethertype ACLs to allow BPDUs
C. FWSMs in multiple-context mode
D. failover and state interfaces on the same VLAN
Answer: B

3. Which three of the following service modules can be deployed in redundant pairs with active/active failover? (Choose three.)
A. ACE
B. CSM
C. NAM
D. IDSM
E. FWSM
F. SSLSM
Answer: ADE

4. You are a Cisco engineer of TestInside.com. You are implementing the Cisco Nexus environment for the company, so which two are requirements of FCoE in it? (Choose two.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol
B. Use of jumbo frames
C. TCP-driven retransmissions for flow control
D. IEEE 802.3x extensions to enable lossless Ethernet
Answer: BD

5. Refer to the exhibit. Each letter (A-D) represents a model for placement of a default gateway. Which model allows the maximum number of application and security services?
A. model A
B. model B
C. model C
D. model D
Answer: C

6. How is FCIP traffic marked with DSCP values?
A. The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switch marks one DSCP value per FCIP tunnel.
B. The Cisco MDS 9000 Series Multilayer Switch marks two DSCP values per FCIP tunnel.
C. The aggregation layer Ethernet switch marks one DSCP value per FCIP tunnel.
D. The aggregation layer Ethernet switch marks two DSCP values per FCIP tunnel.
Answer: B

7. A very large blade-server deployment has high throughput requirements for both data and storage networks. Which access layer option would you recommend?
A. blade server Ethernet switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch
B. blade server InfiniBand switch with Cisco SFS 3000 Series Multifabric Switch
C. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 4948 top-of-rack switch
D. blade server Ethernet switch that is connected to Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series end-of-rack switch
Answer: B

8. You are the senior desktop administrator for TestInside.com. You are deploying network for the company. With your experience, which of following two Cisco service modules can be implemented in redundant pairs with active-active failover? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco network analysis module
B. Cisco ACE Application Control Engine
C. Cisco Firewall Services Module (FWSM)
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series SSL Services Module (CVDM-SSLSM)
Answer: BC

9. What advantage does InfiniBand have over Gigabit Ethernet in HPC environments?
A. lower latency
B. simpler cabling
C. longer distance support
D. more sophisticated traffic management
Answer: A

10. Which data center network-architecture change is a result of the adoption of blade and 1-RU server technologies?
A. Layer 3 fault domains growing larger
B. Layer 2 fault domains growing larger
C. Layer 3 fault domains growing smaller
D. Layer 2 fault domains growing smaller
Answer: B

11. Which two security vulnerabilities does the FWSM application inspection engine mitigate? (Choose two.)
A. DoS attacks
B. DDoS attacks
C. SQL injection
D. cookie altering
E. web server worms
Answer: CD

12. Which service module configuration is recommended to automatically detect and block traffic from malicious hosts?
A. FWSM
B. IDSM that is deployed in IDS mode
C. IDSM that is deployed in IPS mode
D. FWSM that is coupled with the NAM
Answer: C

13. Refer to the exhibit.
Your customer is filling server racks sequentially, filling one rack before beginning the next. Which two access layer designs present challenges in this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3
B. Layer 2 loop-free U
C. Layer 2 looped square
D. Layer 2 looped triangle
E. Layer 2 loop-free inverted U
Answer: AB

14. You are a Cisco engineer of TestInside.com. You are configuring the network for the company. The numbers in the ovals stand for the number of ports in each PortChannel(Refer to the exhibit). If VSS is deployed in the top four switches, as far as you know, how many ports at most that the virtual PortChannel in the core can have ?
A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight
Answer: D

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Exam Number/Code: 190-722
Exam Name: IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 Managing Servers and Users
Questions and Answers: 72 Q&A
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Exam : Lotus 190-722
Title : IBM Lotus Notes Domino 7 Managing Servers and Users

1. Troy, a Notes user, wishes to close all the open tabs on his workspace before exiting the client. Which of the following is the step he will take to perform this?
A. File – Close – Open Windows
B. Action – Windows – Close All
C. File – Close All Open Window Tabs
D. View – All – Close Current Open Windows
Answer: C

2. Alyssa, the Domino administrator, wishes to read reports generated from Smart Upgrades. What database holds these reports?
A. lndsutr.nsf
B. sutrack.nsf
C. sureports.nsf
D. smupgrade.nsf
Answer: A

3. DaJuan, the Domino administrator, has made changes to the TCPIP port setting on the server to enable encryption. What server console command must he run to have the changes take effect immediately?
A. Port TCPIP -reset
B. Restart port TCPIP
C. Encrypt port TCPIP
D. Port TCPIP -encrypt
Answer: B

4. Cherelle, the Domino administrator, is launching Server Health Monitoring for the first time. What tasks are monitored by default for each server?
A. HTTP, SMTP, Adminp and the Amgr
B. The core server task, HTTP, SMTP and Adminp
C. No tasks until the administrator configures the monitoring for each server
D. All tasks currently running when the Server Health Monitor is first launched
Answer: D

5. John wants to know which policy settings are effective for certain users and groups within his organization. In which one of the following would he find this information?
A. The policy synopsis
B. The Policy Report database
C. The Policy Settings document
D. The Policy Overview database
Answer: A

6. Which one of the following best describes the client version reporting feature?
A. When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version only is added to the Person document in the Domino Directory.
B. When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version only is added to the version control document in the log file.
C. When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version and operating system platform machine name are added to the Person document in the log file.
D. When a client connects to a server, the Lotus Notes version and operating system platform machine name are added to the Person document in the Domino Directory.
Answer: D

7. DaJuan wishes to review the status of all the successful Smart Upgrades performed but finds that some of the reports are missing. What is the cause of these missing reports?
A. Successful Smart Upgrades do not generate reports
B. Smart Upgrades have no reporting associated with them
C. He is not currently looking at the reports in the archive view
D. He waited to view reports outside of the number of days to keep reports
Answer: D

8. DJ, the Domino administrator, needs to get the status of the Domino server’s Smart Upgrade cache. What server console command would he enter?
A. sucache show
B. load sucache
C. show smupgrade
D. tell smupgrade show
Answer: A

9. The Domino administrator wishes to use Certificate Revocation Lists (CRL) for Internet certificate authentication. What is required to make this function correctly?
A. The server must be running IIS
B. The server must be running the CRL task
C. The server must be using a Domino ICL database for certificates
D. The server must be using a
Domino server-based certification authority for issuing Internet certificates
Answer: D

10. Administrators may now control access to which of the following components for Domino Web Access (DWA) in the server configuration document?
A. Password quality, message indicators, and chat
B. Offline meetings, offline synchronization, and archiving
C. Calendar delegation, rich text, and the ability to save mail
D. Rooms and Resources, online meetings, and attachments
Answer: D

11. Which of the following policies offer client lock-down?
A. Mail policy and security policy settings
B. Desktop policy and mail policy settings
C. Mail policy and archive policy settings
D. Desktop policy and archive policy settings
Answer: B

12. What Domino feature must be enabled to monitor the number of active Domino Web Access users?
A. Activity logging
B. Server health reports
C. Domino Domain Monitoring
D. Server monitoring in the Domino Administration client
Answer: A

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• Exam Number/Code : 000-273
• Exam Name : ibm mid-range-storage technical solutions version 3
• Questions and Answers : 155 Q&As

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Exam Number/Code: 70-230
Exam Name: DESIGN&IMPLEMENT SOL W/MS BIZTALK SERVER 2000 ENTERPRISE
Questions and Answers: 274 Q&A
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Exam Name: NNCSS-Symposium Call Center TAPI/Agent
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Exam : Nortel 920-119
Title : NNCSS-Symposium Call Center TAPI/Agent

1. An agent has just entered their Symposium Agent client user name and password, and is immediately presented with a Microsoft networking login screen. What is the probable cause for receiving the Microsoft networking login screen?
A. The ACDProxy service has not been started on the TAPI server
B. The customer’s IS Department requires a login to a proxy server
C. Security settings in Internet Explorer for local intranet are set to medium-low
D. The agent’s network login credentials were verified against a BDC instead of the PDC
Answer: B

2. A Windows 95 TAPI client is not able to see any assigned TNs after successfully completing TCMsetup and a reboot of the client. The agent login ID has been associated to all TNs on the TAPI server. What has to be configured, in addition to the above steps, in order for the client to see the associated TNs?
A. Ensure that TAPI server has Service Pack 5 installed
B. Ensure that TAPI2195.exe has been executed on Windows 95 client
C. Ensure that the telephony service on the client is set to start automatically
D. Ensure that the client PC has file and print sharing enabled as well as user level access control
Answer: D

3. What call processing feature is supported by Symposium TAPI Service Provider?
A. RSM functionality and the HDX interfaces
B. ADD functionality and from the RSM interface of SCCS
C. Single site TAPI and a networked Meridian environment
D. Basic and enhanced call control using Meridian Link Services
Answer: D

4. A call center is using multiple Meridian 1 switches in a Network Automatic Call Distribution application. Symposium TAPI Service Provider for Meridian 1 is used to track call data for calls that are overflowed or transferred between the switches. Which statements are TRUE regarding requirements for networking call data in this application? (Choose two.)
A. All participating Meridian 1 switches must be connected by E&M trunks
B. All participating Symposium TAPI Service Providers must be configured for TCP/IP
C. All participating Meridian 1 switches must be configured to support Network Caller ID
D. All participating Symposium TAPI Service Providers must be connected by ISDN trunks
Answer: BC

5. A technician is establishing a Meridian 1 call center configuration that includes the use of an IVR unit and a TAPI server. The TAPI server has been initialized but no IVR Registration Message is present in the overflow log capture. The technician confirms that the IVR and TAPI server can ‘ping’ each other. Next, the technician enters DOS commands on the TAPI server and discovers that port 5000 is listed as ‘LISTENING’. What is the most probable cause of the problem?
A. the port 5000 has not been configured
B. the port 5000 is in use by another application
C. the IVR has been initialized but not set to ACTIVE
D. the TAPI Server has been initialized but not set to ACTIVE
Answer: B

6. A customer has an existing TAPI Server Service Provider for Meridian 1 and IVR installed in their home office. The engineer has installed a TAPI Server Service Provider for Meridian 1 in another location for the same customer expanding the customers call center. The Meridian 1 PBX’s are already configured for Network ACD between PBX and PBX When a call is routed to the remote TAPI Server Service Provider the call data is not received. What needs to be configured to allow the call data from the IVR to be received at the remote TAPI Server Service Provider?
A. Increase the Call Data Life Span.
B. The remote TAPI Server SP must have the IP address and HLOC of the main TAPI Server SP and IVR.
C. The IVR ports need to be configured and monitored on all TAPI Server SP for Meridian 1 within the customer’s network.
D. A two way trust must be set between the network domains between TAPI Server SP location A and TAPI Server SP location B.
Answer: B

7. A customer had a functioning TAPI server. The local IT department recently implemented a new router with the same IP configuration resulting in the TAPI clients failing to have TN control since the router was implemented. What is the probable cause of the communication breakdown?
A. FTP port is blocked on the router
B. MSRPC port is blocked on the router
C. Incorrect IP configuration on the TAPI client
D. Incorrect IP configuration on the TAPI server
Answer: B

8. What is critical to the correct interaction between TAPI Service Provider and Symposium Agent to a third party predictive dialer?
A. Call control
B. Call RingTriggers
C. Current release levels
D. Symposium skillset assignments
Answer: A

9. A field engineer is invoking Ring Triggers within Symposium Agent for screen presentation simultaneously with call presentation. Which three methodologies are available to complete this task? (Choose three.)
A. XML
B. OLE
C. DDE
D. JAVA
E. Active X
F. Keystroke macros
Answer: BCF

10. A field engineer has reloaded the TAPI database from a fresh Meridian 1 do wnload (Load 20 PRT only). Following verification testing it is discovered that only the first 32 phone sets are working. After a brief visual inspection of the TAPI database, the database seems to be corrupted. What is the most probable cause?
A. Load 21 PRT should have been used.
B. The license file was not generated correctly.
C. TAPI cannot control more than 32 digital sets. However, the license file prescribes the limit on analog sets.
D. The downloaded file from the PBX is not lean it contains error messages embedded within the Load 20 configuration information.
Answer: D

11. To access a CRM or other desktop application in the enterprise environment using TAPI Service Provider and Symposium Agent, what sequence of steps are required to generate the CRM screen pop?
A. Add an application; Create a format mask; Create a trigger; Test the trigger
B. Create a trigger; Create a format mask; Add an application; Test the trigger
C. Create a format mask; Create a trigger; Add an application; Test the trigger
D. Create a format mask; Create a trigger; Test the trigger; Add an application
Answer: A

12. A customer installs TAPI on a Windows NT server on domain. A Windows 2000 TAPI client resides on domain . Which conditions are required to successfully set up TAPI on the Windows 2000 client? (Choose two.)
A. Two one-way trust relationships
B. A two-way trust relationship between domains
C. The network must allow reverse RPC requests
D. The M1server directory on the TAPI must be shared to the veryone group.
E. The user ID required to start telephony service in domain must be created in domain
Answer: AC

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Microsoft MB6-509 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: MB6-509
Exam Name: AX 4.0 Trade and Logistics
Questions and Answers: 70 Q&A
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Exam : Microsoft MB6-509
Title : AX 4.0 Trade and Logistics

1. You select four sales orders for invoice updating, two orders with one customer and two with another customer. Each customer has their own invoice account. You invoice update the orders and in the Summary update field, select ‘Invoice account’ how many invoice updates are printed?
A. One invoice as all four orders are summarized into one invoice.
B. Two invoices, one per customer invoice account.
C. Four invoices as you have not set up the customers for automatic summary update.
D. You will get an error message as you have not enabled Invoice account updating in Parameters for Accounts Receivable.
Answer: B

2. An item has the Picking requirement check box selected in the inventory model group. How does this parameter affect the update of a sales order line?
A. The picking list registration must be printed.
B. The items on the sales order line are automatically picked on picking list update.
C. The packing slip can only be updated when the sales is connected to a purchase order.
D. The sales order line cannot be physically updated before the items are picked with the proper dimensions.
Answer: D

3. You have created a sales order for the customer and you used the Create direct delivery function to create the purchase order for your vendor. Your vendor sends you a packing slip and you packing slip update the purchase order. What is going to happen on the sales order
A. Nothing
B. The field packing slip updated from purchase order is filled in on the sales order.
C. The sales order is packing slip updated.
D. The sales order is confirmed.
Answer: C

4. A customer returns some items to you and you create a sales order of the type Returned item. It is then necessary to specify a return action. What is determined by the type of return action selected?
A. The return action determines the return cost price.
B. The return action determines the returned items storage dimensions.
C. The return action determines whether the items must be scrapped or not.
D. The return action determines how the amount of the items are credited and debited.
Answer: BC

5. You have ordered 10 items from a vendor, but when you receive the goods, five of the items are damaged and must be returned. Which of the following options can you choose in order to returns these items?
A. Return the items by creating a new sales order with the quantity of 5 items.
B. Create a credit note by copying the original purchase invoice and reduce the quantity to 5 in the Create credit note form.
C. The items must be sent to an quarantine warehouse and returned to the vendor from the Quarantine order form.
D. Return the items by creating a new purchase order and put in a negative quantity of 5 in the quantity field on the purchase order line
Answer: BD

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Exam Number/Code: 920-171
Exam Name: ncss-nortel communication control toolkit(ncct)rls.5.0
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SUN 310-052 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: 310-052
Exam Name: Sun Certified Enterprise Architect for J2EE 5
Questions and Answers: 320 Q&A
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Exam : SUN 310-052
Title : Sun Certified Enterprise Architect for J2EE 5

1. With the release of a new product line, there has been a significant increase in the volume of transactions on your web site. You need to scale your application and manage session failover. What is the best option for scalability?
A. add additional web servers and application servers
B. introduce a High Availability pair and utilize sticky sessions
C. add additional application servers and implement DNS round robin
D. add additional application servers and use clustered HttpSession
Answer: D

2. What are the three primary roles in a web service interaction? (Choose three.)
A. Broker
B. Facade
C. Provider
D. Decorator
E. Requestor
F. Interceptor
Answer: ACE

3. A stock trading company is writing a new application for stock market forecasting. A significant portion of the work required by the business logic involves navigating through the persistent object model. As lead architect on this project, you have chosen JPA over EJB2 entity beans to implement these persistent objects. You have done this to maximize performance when navigating through the model. Why does JPA offer better performance for this task?
A. JPA guarantees referential integrity at the object level.
B. JPA allows the application to specify lazy or eager retrievals.
C. JPA simplifies the source code that implements the object model.
D. The guaranteed referential integrity in EJB2 entity beans is expensive.
Answer: B

4. A developer creates a Java web service to be used by consumers in an SOA. This SOA uses a UDDI service registry. How can the developer make the new service available to consumers?
A. deploy to the registry using JAXR
B. publish to the registry using JAXR
C. query the registry using JAX-RPC
D. target the registry using JAX-RPC
Answer: B

5. You are asked to architect an SOA solution that leverages Java web services. The architecture needs to be flexible and allow for the SOAP 1.1, SOAP 1.2, and REST implementations. Which Java EE technology should you use?
A. JAXP
B. JAXB
C. JAX-WS
D. JAX-RPC
Answer: C

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CWNP PW0-100 Practice Exams Introduction:
Exam Number/Code: PW0-100
Exam Name: certified wireless network administrator(cwna)
Questions and Answers: 120 Q&A
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Exam : CENP PW0-100
Title : certified wireless network administrator(cwna)

1. In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is the amount of signal strength in addition to the Link Budget.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance RF link does not account for antenna gain.
C. Fade Margin is rarely taken into account on a long-distance RF link.
D. Fade Margin and Jamming Margin are synonymous, interchangeable terms.
Answer: A

2. Which units of measure are used to describe a calculable power quantity?
A. dB
B. dBm
C. dBi
D. mW
E. RSSI
F. dBd
Answer: BD

3. What factors affect the propagation distance of an RF signal?
A. Antenna gain
B. Receiving station sensitivity
C. Fresnel zone blockage
D. Power over Ethernet (PoE) usage
E. Antenna polarization
F. Link budget calculations
Answer: AC

4. Given: XYZ Corporation is experiencing connectivity problems with their existing building-to-building bridge link. A brick wall on the roof of one building is partially blocking the Fresnel Zone, and the connection is dropping many frames. The administrator moves the antenna to an area not obstructed by the brick wall and then realizes the RF cable cannot reach the new location.
If an RF extension cable is used, what are the likely results?
A. The data throughput rate will increase because VSWR will decrease.
B. The Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) will decrease.
C. The antenna coverage area will decrease.
D. The return loss will increase unless the impedance of the RF extension cable is equal to 50% of the antenna impedance.
E. The likelihood of a direct lightning strike will increase, placing the entire WLAN system at risk.
Answer: BC

5. While working on a presentation document in a conference room equipped with a wireless network, you notice that, as you turn your laptop in different directions, your wireless signal strength changes. What RF signal property is primarily responsible for this change in signal strength?
A. The RF signal’s amplitude is changing due to a change in the visual line-of-sight.
B. The RF signal’s wavelength is being affected by varying antenna gain.
C. The RF signal’s multipath is changing the amount of RF absorbed by nearby objects.
D. The RF signal’s phase is oscillating due to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
E. The RF signal’s polarization is different than the receiving antenna.
Answer: E

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High quality and Value for the MB6-510 Exam
Exam Number/Code: MB6-510
Exam Name: AX 4.0 Human Resurce Management
Questions and Answers: 50 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
Test Register: Pearson VUE or Prometric
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Free Microsoft MB6-510 study guide
　
　
Exam : Microsoft MB6-510
Title : AX 4.0 Human Resource
Management

1. What is the maximum employment factor that a person employed in four different units in the line organization can have?
A. 0.25
B. 1.0
C. 4.0
D. A person cannot be employed in different units.
Answer: B

2. The company wants to improve the professional support and counseling that it offers to employees. You have been given the task of creating a matrix organization unit and assigning people to act as mentors. When you start assigning mentors to the unit, you notice that some of them are already working in one or more matrix type units. Which of the following rules apply to matrix organization units?
A. A person can be affiliated to an indefinite number of matrix units.
B. A person can be affiliated to a maximum of five matrix units.
C. A person can be affiliated to a maximum of ten matrix units.
D. A person can be affiliated to an indefinite number of matrix units, provided the person is already affiliated to a line unit.
Answer: A

3. You have just moved a person to a new position in another organization unit and must now decide whether to disable the person’s previous position. When a position is inactive, which of the following can you do?
A. You can hire people into it as usual.
B. You can move people into it if you assign a future start date.
C. You cannot hire people into the position.
D. You cannot change position information.
Answer: C

4. When you receive and evaluate applications for employment, whether or not you want to interview the applicant you should always inform them of your decision. If you receive numerous applications, processing each application manually can be very time consuming. Microsoft Dynamics AX Human Resources supports automated communication with applicants by enabling you to do which of the following?
A. Create mail merge documents based on templates.
B. Create application e-mail documents.
C. Communicate with applicants using the Enterprise Portal.
D. Create telephone call logs.
Answer: AB

5. Which of the following must be considered before creating a new position?
A. The position group you want to assign the position to.
B. Whether a contract has been attached in Microsoft Dynamics AX document handling.
C. Who the manager is of the unit you are creating the position.
D. That position titles in organization units must be unique.
Answer: A

6. In the Microsoft Dynamics AX Human Resources module, certificates represent which of the following?
A. They are a way to identify employees that participated in training courses.
B. They are simple documentation of employee skills. Each skill has a corresponding certificate.
C. They prove that you are qualified to participate in a training course.
D. They represent time constrained proof that an employee has the knowledge or ability to perform one or more specific tasks.
Answer: D

7. The Sales department has enjoyed considerable success recently and now needs additional support with processing the new orders. To increase the number of sales support personnel, you decide to merge a Sales Administration Unit with the Sales Unit. How do you merge the two organization units into one?
A. Drag a unit and drop one on another, and then click Confirm when asked, Merge?
B. Select an organization unit, and select the Move option, and then indicate the unit with which you want to merge.
C. Move all employees from one unit to the other, and then close the first unit.
D. Right-click on a unit, and then select Merge With.
Answer: B

8. An employee’s main employment relation with the company is which of the following?
A. A role in the line organization.
B. A job in the line organization
C. A position in the line organization.
D. An organization unit in the line organization.
Answer: D

9. Which of the following are situations in which you would use reason codes?
A. When moving, hiring, or terminating an employee.
B. When assigning benefits.
C. When updating an employee resume.
D. When ending a recruitment project.
Answer: A

10. You want to assemble a group of employees to address a special business need. However, you do not want the group to be part of your formal organization. Which of the following types of organization units should you create?
A. A line unit.
B. A line and matrix unit.
C. A line unit as the parent, and then a matrix unit as the child.
D. A matrix or a project unit .
Answer: D

11. Until recently, the company’s Chief Executive Officer (CEO) also performed the duties of a Chief Operating Officer (COO). However, the company has just hired a new person to take over the responsibilities of the COO position. You have been given the task of creating the new COO position and must decide whether to make the position unique. For unique positions, which of the following is true?
A. Only one position can be unique in a unit.
B. For each position type, only one position can be unique in an organization unit.
C. You cannot hire or move another employee to a unique position that is currently occupied.
D. You can hire more than one employee into a unique position.
Answer: C

12. The company has just updated its mobile phones to the latest model and wants to start issuing the phones to its employees. Before the company can do so, however, it must create each phone in which of the following Human Resource tables?
A. Loans
B. Loan types
C. Loan items
D. Create loan items.
Answer: C

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