Photoshop

Adobe Illustrator CS 2 ACE

• Exam Number/Code : 9A0-043
• Exam Name : Adobe Illustrator CS 2 ACE
• Questions and Answers : 67 Q&As

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Exam : Adobe 9A0-043
Title : Adobe Illustrator CS 2 ACE Exam

1. Which two actions can you perform by using the Control palette? (Choose two.)
A. rotate an object
B. change the fill color of a path
C. proportionally scale an object
D. change the shear angle of a path
E. select objects with similar attributes
Answer: BC

2. You are repositioning palettes on your screen. You grab a palette by its tab and drag it so your cursor touches the bottom of another palette on your screen. What happens to the palette you are dragging?
A. It replaces the existing palette.
B. It snaps back to its original position.
C. It becomes docked to the existing palette.
D. It becomes clustered with the existing palette.
Answer: C

3. Which icon should you click repeatedly to cycle through the views of a palette?
A. CHOOSE A
B. CHOOSE B
C. CHOOSE C
D. CHOOSE D
Answer: B

4. Click the Exhibit button. What should you do to vertically dock one palette to another?
A. drag the Palette tab of one palette to the bottom of the other palette
B. drag the Palette tab of one palette into the Palette tab area of the other palette
C. use the Palette Options command on the Palette menu to designate the desired docked position
D. Alt-drag (Windows) or Option-drag (Mac OS) the Palette tab of one palette into the Palette tab area of the other palette
Answer: A

5. Click the Exhibit button. In the Control palette shown in the exhibit, what is the function of the highlighted icon?
A. groups objects
B. shows center point
C. aligns objects vertically
D. isolates selected group
Answer: D

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SCSA10

Sun Certified System Administrator for Solaris 10 OS.Part 1

• Exam Number/Code : 310-200
• Exam Name : Sun Certified System Administrator for Solaris 10 OS.Part 1
• Questions and Answers : 225 Q&As

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Exam : SUN 310-200
Title : Sun Certified System Administrator for Solaris 10 OS.Part 1

1. You just installed Solaris on your x86 server and you cannot get your system to boot to the Solaris 10 OS. When rebooting, you get three options in the GRUB menu:
Solaris
Solaris Serial Console ttya
Solaris Serial Console ttyb
You select Solaris from the menu and another menu appears:
1. Solaris Interactive
2. Custom JumpStart
3. Solaris Interactive Text (Desktop Session)
4. Solaris Interactive Text (Console Session)
5. Apply driver update
6. Single User Shell
You check the BIOS settings on the server and the boot device priority is as follows:
First Boot Device [FLOPPY]
Second boot device [CDROM]
Third Boot Device [HARD DISK]
Fourth Boot Device [LAN]
Which option can you use to fix the problem?
A. The boot device priority is fine, your hard drive must be faulty or the boot block is missing. Boot to CDROM, open a shell and run fsck on the Hard Disk.
B. Change the boot device priority so that the CDROM is the third boot device and the HARD DISK is second.
C. Make the First boot device = LAN, Second boot device= CDROM, Third boot device = HARD DISK, remove the fourth boot device.
D. You did not set the fdisk boot partition to ACTIVE and the system cannot boot to the hard disk. Boot from CDROM, open a shell and use fdisk to set the partition to ACTIVE.
E. The GRUB menu is not correct and Solaris is not pointing to the hard disk that youve installed the Solaris OS on. Edit the GRUB menu and modify the default boot device so that it points to the correct boot drive.
Answer: B

2. You are installing Solaris 10 OS on a SPARC-based system with a graphical monitor and keyboard, but the installation starts up in CLI mode.
Assuming you have typed the correct installation command, what is the cause?
A. You used the DVD.
B. The monitor is monochrome.
C. Solaris OS is a text-only installation.
D. The system has less than 384 megabytes of RAM.
E. The system has less than 128 megabytes of RAM.
Answer: E

3. Most files in the Solaris OS make use of data blocks. Which two do NOT use data blocks for storage? (Choose two.)
A. Hard link
B. Directory
C. Device file
D. Symbolic link
Answer: AC

4. Click the Exhibit button.
You have a system with a single disk drive. You need to add a new 6GB file system for /data and can only add it on this disk. Given the information displayed in the exhibit, which describes the option for adding a 6GB slice to this disk without destroying any existing data on the disk or reloading the operating system?
A. Increase slice 4 to 6GB.
B. Combine slices 4 and 5.
C. Reduce the slice 7 to 1GB. Change slice 4 to 6GB.
D. Not enough contiguous space on the disk to make a new 6 GB file system.
E. All of your slices are used. You cannot add a new slice for the /data file system without repartitioning and reloading the OS.
Answer: A

5. You have installed a package called SUNWvts onto your system.
Where is the information about every file and directory contained in this package stored?
A. /var/sadm/messages
B. In your home directory.
C. /var/spool/SUNWvts
D. /var/sadm/install/contents
E. /var/adm/installed/contents
F. /etc/default/installed/packages/information
Answer: D

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High quality and Value for the 1z0-212 Exam
Exam Number/Code: 1z0-212
Exam Name: Oracle payables 11i funfamentats
Questions and Answers: 116 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
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Exam : Oracle 1Z0-212
Title : Oracle? Payables 11i Funfamentats

1. Which three reports can be submitted for reconciling payments during a month-end close? (Choose three.)
A. Aging reports
B. Invoice Audit report
C. Posted Invoice Register report
D. Posted Payments Register report
E. Accounts Payables Trial Balance with details report
Answer: CDE

2. Identify the different types of invoices processed using the Payables Open Interface tables. (Choose all that apply.)
A. XML Invoices
B. PCard Invoices
C. EDI gateway Invoices
D. pay on receipt invoices
E. credit card transactions
Answer: ABCDE

3. Identify the two invoice types processed by the Payables Open Interface process. (Choose two.)
A. credit memos
B. mixed invoices
C. standard invoices
D. prepayment invoices
Answer: AC

4. For a given operating unit, the Automatic Tax Calculation is selected.
Every employee for whom expense reports are entered in Oracle Payables may have different Automatic Tax Calculation options.
What is the best way of meeting this requirement?
A. Do not enter tax details for the invoice, instead calculate them at the time of payment.
B. Create a supplier site for every employee and specify the Automatic Tax Calculation option at the supplier-site level.
C. Let the Automatic Tax Calculation option default from the Payables Option window and this option can be overridden as necessary for each employee expense report.
D. Do not use Automatic Tax Calculation; enter the tax distributions manually for each expense report.
Answer: B

5. Which three types of invoices can be automatically generated (without any manual intervention), if the appropriate setup steps have been performed? (Choose three.)
A. interest invoices
B. recurring invoices
C. purchase order (PO) matched invoices
D. pay on receipt invoices
E. withholding tax invoices
Answer: ADE

6. You are working on a multiorganization Accounts Payable implementation with several payable entities.
Your client will not set up supplier bank accounts, and will use payment batch, quick payments and manual payments.
Which payment methods can your client use? (Choose all that apply.)
A. clearing
B. check
C. wire
D. electronic
Answer: ABC

7. What are three prerequisites for interfacing Payables invoice lines with Assets? (Choose three.)
A. There are no holds placed on the invoice.
B. The invoice must be posted to General Ledger.
C. The option ‘Track as Asset’ is selected in the Distributions form when entering an invoice.
D. The invoice has been transferred to General Ledger.
E. Distribution Account is Asset Clearing or CIP account
Answer: CDE

8. Which four interface tables are available in Oracle Payables? (Choose four.)
A. Payables Payments Interface
B. Payables PCard Interface
C. Payables Open Interface
D. Suppliers Open Interface
E. Payables PO Matching Interface
Answer: BCDE

9. Company XYZ has received the following invoice:
The item charges were distributed to various departments. Company XYZ wants to distribute the freight charges proportionately to the same accounts that were charged for the items.
How should XYZ create the freight distributions?
A. Manually enter freight-type distributions for each account that was charged.
B. Enable Automatically Create Freight Distribution in the Invoice region in the Payables Option window.
C. Create a Freight Distribution by selecting the Create Freight Distribution check box in the Invoices window.
D. In the Distributions window, click the Allocate button, identify the distribution type as Freight, select Prorate, and select the distributions to which freight charges would be allocated.
Answer: D

10. With which three modules does Oracle Payables have two-way integration? (Choose three.)
A. Projects
B. General Ledger
C. Cash Management
D. Oracle Purchasing
E. Human Resources
Answer: ACD

11. Which two events take place when an invoice is matched to a purchase order (PO)? (Choose two.)
A. Tolerances are enforced.
B. PO quantity billed is updated.
C. PO quantity received is updated
D. PO accounting information is copied over.
Answer: BD

12. Which items do not require approval through the workflow? (Choose all that apply.)
A. invoices not matched to a purchase order
B. invoices that existed before you enabled the feature
C. expense reports imported through the Payables Expense Report Import Program
D. recurring invoices if the recurring invoice template did not have the Approval Workflow Required option enabled
E. invoices that completed the Invoice Approval Workflow process, and the Invoice Approval Workflow process determined that according to the rules set up in Oracle Approvals Management, no one needs to approve the invoice
Answer: BCDE

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Exam : IBM 000-425
Title : IBM System z Solution Sales

1. A university physics department issues a RFP for a large system for research purposes. The System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously. Which of the following describes the likely financial justification process?
A. The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B. The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and decide based on TCA
C. The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all vendors
D. The department will purchase a system to meet performance needs at the best price and consider the total cost of ownership
Answer: B

2. A new CIO plans to reduce the complexity of the IT infrastructure. Which of the follow features or approaches will appeal to this individual?
A. TCO
B. Server consolidation
C. Linux
D. Virtualization
Answer: B

3. A moderate sized customer wants to exploit 4Gb FICON on IBM Disk Storage with 40 TB and they are space constrained. Which of the following should the sales specialist recommend?
A. DS4000
B. DS6000
C. DS8000
D. ESS 800
Answer: C

4. Which of the following statements best describes a customer’s pain point that a sales specialist can immediately act upon?
A. "Which solution is right for my environment? There are so many to pick from."
B. "I cannot get the payroll done in time each month, and it is costing me dearly in penalties."
C. "Our outage window is one weekend a month. I cannot afford to have the system down any additional time."
D. "We are on older technology. I know that getting up to date will help us improve on our customer satisfaction."
Answer: B

5. A customer has an older mainframe installed and is considering moving to a new z9. The IT Director asks the System z Sales Specialist for reasons to move to the z9. Which of the following is exclusive to the z9?
A. Server Time Protocol
B. Multiple Logical Channel Subsystem
C. Multiple Subchannel Sets
D. System Managed CF Structure Duplexing
Answer: C

6. Which of the following statements best describes who should be involved in a Systems Assurance Review?
A. All parties directly involved with the install and the Systems Assurance Coordinator.
B. All parties directly involved with the install and the ITSO.
C. All parties directly involved with the install and Poughkeepsie Product Assistance Center (PPAC).
D. All parties directly involved in the install except business partners
Answer: A

7. A System z9 customer is evaluating z/OS capacity requirements. Which of the following IBM tools can perform capacity planning from customer SMF data?
A. zPCR
B. LSPR
C. CP3000
D. AD Tools
Answer: C

8. A System z9 retail customer has several underutilized distributed Linux servers and is considering options to consolidate. This business has many database servers, application servers, and a test and development environment. Which of the following directly impacts the financial justification for this plan?
A. Virtualization to reduce software licensing costs
B. Improved use of data center floor space
C. Increased performance of server workloads
D. Enhanced infrastructure cooling efficiency
Answer: A

9. A System z competitor has announced their potential entry into the mainframe market. It further claims that their system can run z/OS. What should the sales rep make sure the customer understands.
A. z/OS can only run on IBM mainframe systems.
B. Customer should verify the system will also run z/VM and Linux.
C. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS are licensed for use only on Designated Machines, subject to IBM licensing terms.
D. Programs such as OS/390 and z/OS must be demonstrated to run on Designated Machines, subject to IBM System z Technical Specialist approval.
Answer: C

10. What is the advantage of dynamic oscillator switchover?
A. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over and provide redundant power capabilities.
B. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over requiring only an IPL instead of a full Power on Reset.
C. Allows the backup oscillator to detect the failure, switch over, and provide the clock signal to the server transparently.
D. Supports enhanced availability for z890, z900, and z9
Answer: C

11. A company is running many small applications, each on their own Intel server with the Linux operating system. They would like to consolidate the servers but maintain the flexibility to scale as business grows. Which of the following describes the characteristics of z9 virtualization to address this issue?
A. A virtual machine may use as little as 1/10,000th of a physical processor.
B. A virtual machine may use as little as 1% of a physical processor.
C. A virtual machine may use as little as 10% of a physical processor.
D. A virtual machine may use any percentage of a physical processor.
Answer: A

12. A prospective manufacturing customer with an existing complex environment is requesting a proposal for a TSM data management solution. What should be the first step taken to validate the customer’s project?
A. Perform a TSM benchmark
B. Verify funding
C. Contact the IBM Software Sales Professional
D. Survey customer’s current environment
Answer: C

13. A Sun customer has recently experienced several critical processor failures. When replacing the processors, the customer was not able to recreate the problem. Which of the following System z RAS features should the sales representative emphasize during the sales call?
A. Chipkill Memory
B. Service Processor
C. Lightpath Diagnostics
D. First Failure Data Capture
Answer: D

14. An installed zSeries customer is migrating to a z9 EC server. They are concerned about the number of PCI-X cryptographic adapters available. Which of the following is the maximum number available?
A. 16
B. 8
C. 48
D. 336
Answer: A

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• Exam Number/Code : DP-023W
• Exam Name : Data Protection Administration for UNIX (NBU 5.0)
• Questions and Answers : 79 Q&As

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Exam : IBM 000-324
Title : IBM eserver zseries technical.version 1

1. What is considered to be a traditional mainframe workload?
A. Servlets, JSPs
B. Linux workload
C. CPU intense
D. Batch and OLTP
Answer: D

2. An Internet Service Provider is considering using a z990 for deploying hundreds of Linux systems under z/VM. The zSeries platform would provide the MOST value for this customer in terms of:
A. Processing speed.
B. Response time.
C. Systems management.
D. Memory size.
Answer: C

3. Which of the following is NOT a Server-to-Server communication method between two physical machines?
A. InterSystem Channels (ISC)
B. HiperSockets
C. Integrated Cluster Bus (ICB) channels
D. Channel-to-channel (CTC or FCTC) connections
Answer: B

4. Which of the following middleware is an important part of the IBM’s on demand strategy for the zSeries platform?
A. Debug tool
B. WebSphere Application Server (WAS)
C. Resource Management Facility (RMF)
D. SA/390
Answer: B

5. What is the maximum number of zAAP processors that can be installed on a 2084?
A. 16
B. 12
C. 8
D. 0
Answer: A

6. Which of the following workloads would NOT be a candidate for a z/OS.e partition?
A. WebSphere for z/OS
B. PL/I Applications
C. SAP
D. Oracle
Answer: B

7. Which of the following z800 models can be upgraded to a z890 model?
A. 1C8
B. 0A2
C. 310
D. 100
Answer: B

8. The Hardware Configuration Manager (HCM) allows the:
A. Operations staff to operate the system from a PC.
B. Operations staff to reconfigure zSeries channel attachments dynamically.
C. Systems programmer to define the zSeries I/O subsystem via a PC application.
D. Systems programmer to replace the Hardware Configuration Definition (HCD) function.
Answer: C

9. All of the following apply to z/OS WLM EXCEPT:
A. It provides programming interfaces that can allow customers to set goals for their transactions.
B. It provides goal oriented, dynamic resource management and goals are based on business importance.
C. It simplifies definition, control, and reporting of the performance requirements for z/OS workloads.
D. It coordinates z/OS images across a sysplex to process work towards multiple goals and shares goals with other products.
Answer: D

10. Which of the following I/O Channel Subsystem components would improve the efficiency of TCP/IP?
A. Dynamic Channel Path Management
B. Channel Subsystem Priority Queuing
C. SAPs and EMIF
D. Queued Direct Input/Output
Answer: D

11. z/OS.e runs on which of the following machines?
A. MP3000
B. z900 and z990
C. z800 and z890
D. All zSeries architecture machines
Answer: C

12. Which of the following software products does NOT have an offering to run under Linux?
A. Oracle
B. WebSphere
C. IMS DB
D. DB2 UDB
Answer: C

13. A customer needs 12 additional FICON channels on a 2084. Six channels are LX, and six are SX. The required FICON is Express2. How many FICON Express feature codes will be required to meet this requirement?
A. 3, where each FICON Express2 feature code has four FICON channels
B. 4, two feature codes for LX FICON and two feature codes for SX FICON
C. 6, three per FICON channel type
D. 6, where each FICON Express 2 feature code has two FICON channels
Answer: B

14. A performance analysis indicates that a customer’s current 2064-2C5 needs more processing power. The MES is being requested based on the analysis to upgrade from a 2C5 to a 2C7 as soon as possible. The customer cannot afford the maintenance window for installation. Which of the following is the preferred action?
A. Ask the customer to schedule the installation when the machine can be stopped.
B. Tune the current machine to improve the performance as much as possible and delay the installation until the machine can be stopped.
C. Persuade the customer to schedule the installation window immediately.
D. Schedule the installation to be performed concurrently.
Answer: D

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Exam Number/Code: 310-879
Exam Name: SUN Certified System Support Engineer
Questions and Answers: 120 Q&A
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Exam : SUN 310-879
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1. You have completed an EIS installation. The customer asks for a copy of the EIS CD-ROM in case they need to rebuild the same system at a later date. What should you do?
A. Advise the customer to order an official copy.
B. Give the customer the discs as part of the installation.
C. Refuse politely, the discs are not available to customers.
D. Offer to make copy of the discs which you will pass on later.
Answer: C

2. You have been asked to brief the customer regarding the power configuration of a Sun Fire 6800 for compliance with Sun Fire Midframe Server Configuration Best Practices.
The Sun Fire 6800 power configuration is as follows:
1. 2 redundant transfer units (RTU)
2. Each RTU contains 2 redundant transfer switches (RTS)
Which three should you tell the customer about best practices for power configuration? (Choose three.)
A. If one RTS fails, the RTU will shutdown.
B. Both RTS in an RTU should be connected to the same power source.
C. Both RTS in each RTU do not load share and are in active-standby mode.
D. Both RTS in each RTU perform load sharing and are in active-active mode.
E. The Sun Fire rack has 2 RTUs that should be connected to a single power source.
F. The Sun Fire rack has 2 RTUs that each should be connected to a separate power source.
G. The RTS will attempt to switch incoming power to a second RTS module in the RTU in the event of a brownout or power failure.
Answer: CFG

3. You have replaced a failed RTS on a Sun Fire 6800. While packing your tools you hear a loud mechanical lunk. On investigation, you discover the righthand RTS has failed over to the lefthand RTS.
What should you do?
A. Replace the other RTS unit as these normally always fail in pairs.
B. Suspect a version mismatch between the original and your replacement RTS.
C. Nothing, the machine will always use the functioning left-hand RTS when available.
D. Ask the customer to connect to the System Controller and enable the replacement RTS.
Answer: C

4. You are doing the initial platform setup on a Sun StorEdge T3+ array. The customer wants to create a LUN with a Blocksize = 64k. What command serves to define the blocksize parameter of the array?
A. set
B. sys
C. fru
D. vol
Answer: B

5. You are installing a StorEdge T3b Array and have already entered the T3 module name. According to the EIS checklist, you are required to enter the blocksize. What is the block size required by EIS?
A. 4k
B. 16k
C. 32k
D. 64k
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Installing, Configuring, and Administering Microsoft Windows XP Professional
Questions and Answers: 146 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
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Exam : Microsoft 70-270
Title : Installing, Configuring, and Administering Microsoft Windows XP Professional

1. You are a desktop administrator for your company. You are responsible for deploying a new application. The application is packaged in an .msi file.
You need to deploy the application to only three users in the company. The .msi file contains all of the information necessary to correctly install the application.
You need to install the application so that users see information about the installation progress, but no other user interface is displayed during the installation. What should you do?
A. Use the Msiexec.exe program to perform a quiet installation of the application.
B. Use the Msiexec.exe program to perform a passive installation of the application.
C. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that assigns the application. Link the GPO to the site containing the users who will use the application.
D. Create a Group Policy object (GPO) that advertises the application. Link the GPO to the domain.
Answer: B

2. You are a desktop administrator for your company. A company user reports that he is unable to use his Bluetooth-enabled mobile phone with his Bluetooth-enabled Windows XP Professional computer. He is trying to play audio from the phone through the speakers on his computer.
You verify that other Bluetooth devices work properly with the user’s computer. You test the speakers to make sure they are in working order. You also verify that the mobile phone can send output to a computer. You then discover that the phone cannot detect the computer.
You need to ensure that the user can use the phone with his computer. What should you do?
A. Place the phone in Bluetooth discovery mode.
B. Place the user’s computer in Bluetooth discovery mode.
C. Add the phone and the computer to the same Bluetooth Personal Area Network (PAN).
D. Install mobile phone synchronization software on the user’s computer.
Answer: B

3. You are the desktop administrator for your company. The company’s network contains a RIS server, a DHCP server, and a DNS server.
You need to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that does not have a CD-ROM drive. The computer has the following configuration:
·a Pentium III 1-GHz processor
·a 5-GB hard disk
·128 MB of RAM
·a modem in the first PCI slot
·an Ethernet card in the last ISA slot
You attempt to install Windows XP Professional on the computer by using a RIS bootable floppy disk. However, you are unable to connect to the RIS server.
What should you do?
A. Move the Ethernet card to the first ISA slot.
B. Remove the Ethernet card and replace it with an Ethernet card that is PXE compliant.
C. Share the RIS image on the RIS server. Create a network bootable floppy disk. Insert the floppy disk, and install Windows XP Professional from the share.
D. Place the NDIS network drivers in the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk. Use the floppy disk to connect to the RIS server.
Answer: B

4. You are a desktop administrator for your company. You need to deploy a new application. The application is packaged in an .msi file.
The application will be used by only a small number of users. You plan to install the application by using the Msiexec.exe program.
You need to ensure that the installation process does not display a user interface. What should you do?
A. Manually perform a passive installation of the application.
B. Manually perform a quiet installation of the application.
C. Use a logon script to run the Msiexec.exe program.
D. Use the Runas utility to run the Msiexec.exe program.
Answer: B

5. You are the desktop administrator for your company. You successfully perform a clean installation of Windows XP Professional on drive C of a computer that is used by an employee named Susan.
Susan is a software developer. She wants her computer to have a dual-boot configuration so that she can use either Windows XP Professional or Windows 2000 Professional. She installs Windows 2000 Professional on drive G.
After installing Windows 2000 Professional, Susan restarts her computer and chooses to start Windows XP Professional. When Windows XP Professional starts, Susan sees the following error message, which is also shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
"Windows 2000 could not start because the following file is missing or corrupt: WINDOWSSYSTEM32CONFIGSYSTEM"
However, Susan restarts her computer and is able to successfully start Windows 2000 Professional.
You want Susan’s dual-boot configuration to function properly. You start Susan’s computer and choose to start Windows 2000 Professional.
What should you do next?
A. Copy the NTLDR file and the Ntdetect.com file from the i386 folder on the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM to the root directory of drive C.
B. Copy the NTLDR file and the Ntdetect.com file from the i386 folder on the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM to the root directory of drive G.
C. Restore the C:WindowsSystem32ConfigSystem file from a recent backup.
D. Restore the G:WindowsSystem32ConfigSystem file from a recent backup.
Answer: A

6. You are a help desk technician for your company. Stefan and Irene are software developers for the company. Stefan is developing a Web application on his Windows XP Professional computer. The computer is named Stefan132. All client computers use Microsoft Internet Explorer 6. 0 or later as their Web browser.
When Irene types http://Stefan132 in the Address bar of her Web browser, she cannot access the Web application. However, Stefan can access the Web application by typing http://localhost or http://Stefan132 in the Address bar of his Web browser. He can also access resources on the company network.
When you run the Ping command on your computer, you cannot connect to Stefan’s computer. When you attempt to access http://Stefan132 from your computer, Internet Explorer displays "DNS or Server Error."
You need to ensure that Irene can access the Web application on Stefan’s computer. First, you establish a Remote Assistance connection to Stefan’s computer.
What should you do next on Stefan’s computer?
A. Run the IPconfig /renew command.
B. Stop and then restart the World Wide Web Publishing service.
C. Ensure that the Everyone group has Allow – Full Control permission on the Inetpub folder.
D. In the properties of the Local Area Connection connection, allow a Windows Firewall exception for port 80.
Answer: D

7. You are the network administrator for one of your company’s branch offices. Ten employees work in the branch office. All client computers in the branch office run Windows XP Professional. All client computers have manually configured IP addresses in the 192. 168. 1. 0/24 range.
The branch office has a cable modem connection to the Internet. All employees in the branch office need access to the main office by means of a virtual private network (VPN) connection over the Internet. The VPN connection is configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
Employees in the branch office report that they cannot access resources that are located on the main office network. You investigate and discover that you can establish a VPN connection locally on a client computer named Pro1 and can access main office network resources. However, you cannot connect to Pro1 from other computers on the branch office network.
You want all employees in the branch office to be able to access main office network resources by means of the VPN connection on Pro1. What should you do?
A. Disable Windows Firewall on the main office VPN connection.
B. Add a port exception to Windows Firewall to allow incoming PPTP traffic on the main office VPN connection.
C. Select the Allow other network users to control or disable the shared Internet connection check box.
D. Configure all client computers in the branch office to obtain IP addresses automatically.
Answer: D

8. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. Katrin is a user in the sales department. You need to upgrade Katrin’s Windows 2000 Professional computer to Windows XP Professional.
Philippe is the network administrator. He previously downloaded updated Setup files and placed them on a server named Server1, in a shared folder named Updates. Philippe has successfully installed computers by using these updated Setup files.
You want to ensure that these updated Setup files are automatically installed on Katrin’s computer during the upgrade. Which command should you run to start Setup?
A. Winnt32. exe /dushare:\server1updates
B. Winnt32. exe /copydir:\server1updates
C. Winnt32. exe /duprepare:\server1updates
D. Winnt32. exe /copysource:\server1updates
Answer: A

9. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. The company’s network contains a RIS server.
You need to install Windows XP Professional on a computer that has a SCSI disk subsystem. You start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and you begin the installation. However, Setup reports that it cannot find any disks on which to install Windows XP Professional.
You start the computer by using a RIS bootable floppy disk, and you receive the same result. What should you do?
A. Add an answer file to the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk.
Start the computer by using the RIS bootable floppy disk, and run Setup by using RIS.
B. Add the SCSI-controller driver to the root directory of the RIS bootable floppy disk.
Start the computer by using the RIS bootable floppy disk, and run Setup by using RIS.
C. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.
After Setup starts, provide an answer file on a floppy disk.
D. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.
After Setup starts, provide a SCSI-controller driver on a floppy disk.
E. Start the computer by using the Windows XP Professional CD-ROM, and run Setup.
After Setup starts, provide the appropriate HAL on a floppy disk.
Answer: D

10. You are the desktop administrator for your company. You are responsible for automating the deployment of Windows XP Professional to new computers in your company. You are preparing a Windows XP Professional computer, which you will use to test disk imaging.
You install Windows XP Professional on the test computer and run the Sysprep utility. You use a third-party software package to create a disk image. You apply the disk image to a new computer and then restart the computer.
Instead of completing the Windows XP Professional installation, the computer starts the Windows Welcome program, requiring you to enter additional setup information.
Because you will be deploying a large number of computers, you want to ensure that the disk image can be applied without additional user interaction. What should you do?
A. Use a network-based RIS server to apply the disk image to new computers.
B. On the test computer, run the Sysprep -factory command. Re-create the disk image by using the third-party software.
C. Use Setup Manager to create a Sysprep answer file. Copy the answer file to a floppy disk, and insert the disk into new computers when the disk image is applied.
D. Create an Unattend.txt answer file. Copy the file to the C:WinntSystem32 folder on the test computer. Run the Sysprep utility and re-create the disk image by using the third-party software.
Answer: C

11. You are the desktop administrator for your company’s sales department. You need to perform a clean installation of Windows XP Professional on a computer that currently runs Windows 98.
You start the installation. The text-based portion of Setup finishes successfully. Before the GUI-based portion of Setup starts, the computer stops responding. You investigate and discover that there is a problem with a device driver.
You want to know which device is causing the problem. What should you do?
A. Modify the Boot.ini file to include the /fastdetect switch.
B. Modify the Boot.ini file to include the /sos switch.
C. Restart Setup by using the /dudisable switch.
D. Restart Setup by using the /dushare switch.
E. Restart the computer. From the Recovery console, read the Dr. Watson log.
F. Restart the computer. From the Recovery console, read the Comsetup.log file.
Answer: B

12. You are the administrator of a Windows XP Professional computer named Pro1. The computer is connected to the Internet. Pro1 provides Internet access to eight other Windows XP Professional computers that are connected to Pro1.
You enable Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) and Windows Firewall on Pro1.
You run an application named App1 on Pro1. App1 communicates with an online training company on the Internet. To display an online seminar, the training company needs to contact the App1 application at port 5800.
You want to ensure that the training company can connect to the App1 application. What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Firewall to enable the Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) Allow redirect option. Then start the App1 application that opens port 5800.
B. Create a new service exception named App1. Use port 5800 as both the external and internal port number.
C. Edit the %systemroot%System32DriversEtcServices file on Pro1 to include a service definition named App1 for port 5800.
D. Change the TCP/IP settings on Pro1 to enable TCP/IP filtering. Permit network traffic on port 5800.
Answer: B

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1. Your customer has a specific requirement for reports to be a part of their main system rather than an external reporting system. Which two types of report templates can be created and imported into the Contact Center Manager Administration? (Choose two.)
A. CCMIS reports
B. Crystal Reports
C. Report Creation Wizard reports
D. Any ODBC/SQL compliant reports
Answer: BC

2. A large call center customer allows its supervisors to connect to the contact center network using VPN. There is a concern from the company’s security department that this will allow too much access to the entire enterprise network. To limit the amount of access that call center supervisors have, what should you recommend to this company?
A. Create a private network for the call center supervisors.
B. Enable restricted access through the VPN switch to the Nortel server subnet.
C. Create firewall access rules so that the call center supervisors can only access their own workstations at the contact center.
D. Enable split tunnel VPN connections for the supervisors and restrict them, so that they may only access the contact center ELAN.
Answer: B

3. A customer has Contact Center Manager Rls. 6.0 installed. The customer refuses to use modems for remote support, because of security concerns, and plans to implement a VPN-based technology solution for remote access to the Contact Center Manager Server. What is the VPN-based technology recommended by Nortel?
A. any third-party technology in a host-to-host configuration
B. any third-party technology in a host-to-gateway configuration
C. a technology based on the Contivity 1100 (as a minimum) in a host-to-host configuration
D. a technology based on the Contivity 1100 (as a minimum) in a host-to-gateway configuration
Answer: D

4. Your client has just installed a Contact Center Manager Server solution. For resiliency, the customer would like to add redundancy to the system. Which two additional servers are required to implement a backup solution with replication? (Choose two.)
A. a replication server
B. a Contact Center Manager Server standby
C. a Contact Center Multimedia server standby
D. a Contact Center Manager Administration server standby
Answer: AB

5. An existing Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 4.5 customer requires incoming callers to receive self-service based on the number called. Which servers must be implemented to access the features associated with a Contact Center Self Service (IVR) scenario?
A. Replication Server
B. Host Data Exchange
C. Contact Center – Multimedia
D. Communication Control Toolkit
Answer: D

6. A large call center operates 24 hours a day. It is important to minimize impact to service levels and to reduce network traffic. When would be the optimal time to backup the Contact Center Manager Server?
A. at midnight on a daily basis
B. when the call center is closed for a holiday
C. during off-peak hours when call volumes are at a minimum
D. backup functions will not affect network traffic or service levels
Answer: C

7. With the Contact Center Manager Administration, how are changes made to agent skillset assignments?
A. ad hoc from the agent-to-skillset assignment display
B. either ad hoc or scheduled through agent-to-skillset assignment display
C. through scheduled changes within the PBX for telephone-set assignments
D. ad hoc through changes to the programming of the telephone-set assignments
Answer: B

8. A customer receives a large number of inbound e-mail requests from its web site. Each customer product has been assigned its own e-mail address on the Contact Center Multimedia (CCMM) e-mail server. To obtain the maximum efficiency of available agents, how are these e-mail requests routed to more than one skillset in the Contact Center Manager Server?
A. Have the agents assigned to all skillsets.
B. Create e-mail distribution groups for the agents.
C. Hire more contact center agents to handle the inbound e-mail volume.
D. Use multiple TO: addresses on the e-mails to direct them to more than one skillset.
Answer: D

9. Your customer has a new call center using a Contact Center Manager Server system. They want to take full advantage of the Outbound Campaign Management Tool. Which three feature keys must be enabled on the agent’s telephone sets in Overlay 11 (LD 11) in a Meridian 1 switch? (Choose three.)
A. DN
B. LNR
C. ACD
D. TOD
E. AST
Answer: ACE

10. Your client has just installed Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS). Certain processes must be followed to make changes to an in-service application. Which two statements are true. (Choose two.)
A. Server Utility is selectively installed on CCMS.
B. Only registered users can make application changes.
C. You can run the Contact Center Server Utility to make application changes.
D. You must backup all data and perform a complete re-install of the server before making application changes.
Answer: AC

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• Exam Number/Code : 250-700
• Exam Name : Implementation & Custom. of HA Solutions for Windows using VCS 4.1
• Questions and Answers : 73 Q&As

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1. Which two things need to be confirmed before installing VCS? (Choose two.)
A. verify that all required Operating System patches are installed on each system
B. verify that private Ethernet heartbeats reside on consecutive network subnets
C. identify the Cluster ID of any other VCS cluster with heartbeat connections on the same subnet
D. all applications that are to be clustered are offline prior to installing VCS
E. ensure that one system is set up as a license manager for all applications that will be clustered
Answer: AC

2. There is a requirement for an application to remain online when a public network interface fails in a two-system VCS cluster. Which hardware configuration is required to configure this behavior in VCS?
A. Multiple public network interfaces must be present on each system.
B. One network interface per system will work as long as two or more switches are present.
C. VCS will fail over the application any time any network interface fails on a system.
D. Multiple network interfaces must be on the same controller card on each system.
Answer: A

3. You want to verify that systems are suitable for a VCS clustered application. Which three items do you verify on the systems? (Choose three.)
A. operating system licenses
B. operating system patch levels
C. amount of memory in each system
D. systems listed in VCS Hardware Compatibility List
Answer: BCD

4. You are planning to install both VERITAS Cluster Server and VERITAS Storage Foundation. You will also be changing the application environment over the course of the next 18 months. Increasing the number of ______ will require modification of the VCS configuration. (Choose three.)
A. highly available applications
B. file systems used by the highly available applications
C. disk groups used by the highly available applications
D. disks in the disk group used by the highly available applications
Answer: ABC

5. Which two security group memberships are required to add a system to a cluster? (Choose two.)
A. Domain Administrator in the domain
B. Enterprise Administrator in the domain
C. Local Administrator for the new system
D. Domain User in the domain
Answer: AC

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