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Exam Number/Code: 250-365
Exam Name: Data Protection Administration for Windows(NBU 6.5)
Questions and Answers: 180 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
Test Register: Pearson VUE or Prometric
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Exam : Symantec 250-365
Title : Data Protection Administration for Windows (NBU 6.5)

1. Which NetBackup option uses snapshot technology to perform rapid snapshot-based restores?
A. Intelligent Disaster Recovery (IDR)
B. True image restore with move detection
C. Disk staging storage unit restore
D. Instant Recovery
Answer: D

2. Which statement is true about the relationship between a master server and an EMM server?
A. An EMM server supports only one master server.
B. An EMM server supports more than one master server.
C. A master server may use more than one EMM server.
D. A master server may use an EMM server one major version behind.
Answer: B

3. You have just installed a NetBackup 6.5 master server and the EMM server is on a different machine.
In addition to bprd, bpjobd, and nbpem, which other processes would be running on the master server if the installation was successful?
A. bpbrm, nbrb
B. bpdbm, nbemm
C. bpdbm, nbjm
D. bpbrm, nbjm
Answer: C

4. Which statements are true about upgrading an existing NetBackup installation to NetBackup 6.5? (Choose two.)
A. All master and media servers must be on the same revision level.
B. All clients must be on the same revision level as their media servers.
C. A media server may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
D. A client may be one major revision level lower than the master server.
E. A master server may be one major revision level lower than a media server.
Answer: CD

5. NetBackup Operations Manager provides some useful utilities to help manage the NOM database. Which command is used to launch the utility to perform NOM maintenance?
A. NOMadmincmd
B. NOMadmin
C. NOMcmd
D. NOMadm
Answer: B

6. Which actions can you take when performing a custom client installation on a Microsoft Windows 2003 system? (Choose two.)
A. You can deselect Veritas Snapshot Provider.
B. You can change the default port numbers.
C. You can only add up to five media servers.
D. You can set a custom location for the NetBackup catalog.
E. You can select to install the EMM database server.
Answer: AB

7. What is the name of the Netbackup service running after installation of a Windows client?
A. NetBackup Windows Service
B. NetBackup Client Service
C. NetBackup Remote Service
D. NetBack File System Service
Answer: B

8. In a NetBackup 6.5 environment, the image database resides _____.
A. within the EMM database
B. on the EMM server in binary format
C. on the master server in binary format
D. within the master server’s Sybase database
Answer: C

9. Which processes are found on a NetBackup UNIX client? (Choose three.)
A. bpbkar
B. bpbrm
C. tar
D. bpcompatd
E. bpcd
Answer: ACE

10. When the master server is running NetBackup version 6.5, what is the minimum version of NetBackup that can be running on a media server?
A. 5.0 MP3
B. 5.0 MP4
C. 5.1
D. 5.1 MP4
Answer: B

11. What is updated during a NetBackup installation on Windows 2003?
A. C:WINDOWSSystem32driversetcservices and C:\WINDOWSSystem32driversetchosts
B. C:WINDOWSSystem32driversetcservices and Windows Registry
C. C:WINDOWSSystemdriversetcservices and C:\WINDOWSSystemdriversetchosts
D. C:WINDOWSSystemdriversetcservices and Windows Control Panel
Answer: B

12. Which guidelines should be followed when conducting a NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three.)
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported version of an OS.
E. You should remove previous versions of NetBackup in a Windows environment.
Answer: ACD

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Exam : MBS MB3-533
Title : Microsoft Dynamics GP Human Resources and Payroll

1. Microsoft Dynamics GP is designed to allow certain users to automatically set up Payroll benefits and deductions at the same time the user is enrolling employees for benefits and deductions In Human Resources. Which option, when activated, provides the user with this functionality?
A. Employee Filters
B. Auto-Assign Employee ID
C. Payroll View for Human Resources
D. Organizational Display
Answer: C

2. Fabrikam, Inc. currently uses Payroll and has decided to add the Human Resources module. What procedures need to be run to ensure the Human Resources benefit information is updated?
A. Shrink and verify
B. Reconcile
C. Year-end closing
D. This automatically happens as soon as HR is loaded
Answer: B

3. What is necessary to set up a deduction for employee purchases that have varying amounts and do not occur every pay period?
A. Select the Sheltered from Federal Tax option in the Deduction Setup window.
B. Enter as a Tiered or Sequenced deduction with a frequency of miscellaneous.
C. Make sure that the Transaction Required option is selected.
D. Select the Variable Deduction option and specify the frequency as miscellaneous.
Answer: C

4. Life Insurance set up requires a premimum method to be selected. Which of the following methods are supported in Microsoft Dynamics GP Human Resources?
A. Fixed Amounts only
B. Fixed Amounts and Variable Amounts
C. Fixed Amounts and Age Based
D. Variable Amounts and Age Based
Answer: C

5. When setting up a Pay Code default, which of the following pay types must be based on an hourly, salary or piecework pay code? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Commission
B. Minimum Wage Balance
C. Sick
D. Overtime
Answer: CD

6. The FMLA 12-Month Period can be based on which of the following? Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Calendar Year
B. Anniversary Year
C. 12 months forward from a previous FMLA leave
D. An employee-specific fixed 12-month period
Answer: ACD

7. When using Pay Steps, an employee’s step increases can be based on which of the following?
A. Seniority Date
B. Birth Date
C. Years of Education
D. Years of Experience
Answer: A

8. Health Insurance Plans in Human Resources allow which of these items to occur? Choose the 3 that apply.
A. A FMLA premium can be tracked.
B. A waiting period can be specified before an employee becomes eligible.
C. A copay code could be attached for prescription drugs.
D. Contributions to pay for the plan can come from the employee and employer.
Answer: BCD

9. Which of the following is considered a Miscellaneous Benefit in Microsoft Dynamics GP Human Resources?
A. Dental
B. Disability
C. Age-Based Life Insurance
D. Flexible Spending Account
Answer: D

10. The Human Resources department is responsible for updating everyone’s wages with a 2% cost of living increase. What window should be used to ensure both Payroll and Human Resources are updated with this increase?
A. Payroll Mass Update
B. Pay Code Setup
C. Compensation Management
D. Employee Pay Code Maintenance
Answer: C

11. If a 401K retirement plan is set up in Human Resources, and the employer match percentage is 50%, what are the deduction and benefit percentage amounts entered in Payroll if the employee contributed 8%?
A. 8% deduction and no benefit
B. 8% deduction and 4% benefit
C. 4% deduction and 8% benefit
D. 4% deduction and 4% benefit
Answer: B

12. What window is used to access American Disabilities Act (ADA) information?
A. Division Setup
B. Department Setup
C. Position Setup
D. Employee Maintenance
Answer: C

13. What does a red exclamation mark mean next to a To-Do List item?
A. The item is very important.
B. The item has been entered today.
C. The item has been rolled forward as opposed to a new entry for the day.
D. The item is a new item that day,, is important,, and cannot be deleted until it is completed.
Answer: C

14. When defining a Review Policy, which of the following is true? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Intervals are displayed in chronological order.
B. Date of the next review is always based upon the date of the last review.
C. Words or numbers can be used to rate each category in a review.
D. Review dates can be posted to the Personal To Do List.
Answer: AC

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Exam Number/Code: 000-019
Exam Name: IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation
Questions and Answers: 137 Q&A
Duration: 90 Minutes (50-70 questions)
Available Languages: English
Test Register: Pearson VUE or Prometric
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Exam : IBM 000-019
Title : IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition V3.8 Implementation

1. What is the minimum memory requirement for a server when planning a single server IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition deployment on a small network where all the required components are on the same server?
A. 1 GB
B. 2 GB
C. 4 GB
D. 8 GB
Answer: C

2. Which three items affect the number of IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition domains? (Choose three.)
A. discovery scheduling
B. installation username
C. administrative boundaries
D. IP address space structure
E. seeding method for the discovery
F. estimated number of network entities
Answer: CDF

3. Which three items add to the normal expected deployment time? (Choose three.)
A. seeding from a file and ping sweeping
B. multiple global SNMP community strings
C. non-contiguous or unmanageable networks
D. devices outside of the standard device support list
E. collector-based discovery from external data source
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance
Answer: CDE

4. When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which network consideration requires the segmentation of the network into more than one domain?
A. overlapping 1-1 NAT address spaces
B. Multiprotocol Label Switching VPN network operation
C. overlapping non Network Address Translation (NAT) address spaces
D. Regional Network Operations Centers performing follow the Sun support in Houston, Paris, and Tokyo
Answer: C

5. Which field is required to be set in an event so that the Event Gateway passes it through to IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition for further processing on a default installation?
A. Node
B. Severity
C. AlertKey
D. LocalNodeAlias
Answer: D

6. Which IP address must be specified as Network Address Translation (NAT) Gateway when adding a new NAT Gateway in IBM Tivoli Network Manager IP Edition (Tivoli Network Manager)?
A. Public IP address of NAT Gateway
B. Private IP address of NAT Gateway
C. IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
D. Default Gateway IP address of Tivoli Network Manager Server
Answer: A

7. Which script must be run on the Tivoli Integrated Portal server to extract the events from OMNIbus so that data in reports can be viewed?
A. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/configClient.sh
B. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tcr/bin/startTCRserver.sh
C. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_currentStatus
D. <Tivoli_Integrated_Portal_install_dir>/products/tnm/bin/itnm_polldata_pruning
Answer: C

8. Click the Exhibit button.
A Network Administrator has configured the Scope.
Which two IP addresses will be deemed in-scope during a discovery of the network? (Choose two.)
A. 20.20.5.1
B. 20.20.5.63
C. 10.10.0.68
D. 172.168.0.5
E. 192.168.25.15
Answer: BD

9. Which file needs to be configured to set the precedence of the events sent for Root Cause Analysis?
A. AmosSchema.cfg
B. NcoGateInserts.cfg
C. EntityEventToAlert.rule
D. SuppressContainedAlerts.rule
Answer: B

10. When defining a new chassis with interfaces and connecting this to an existing entity using the PresetLayer functionality, which three items need to be provided? (Choose three.)
A. neighbor information
B. containment information
C. the ClassName for the new entity
D. define the agents to run against the device
E. the SNMP/telnet credentials for the new entity
F. entity definitions for the chassis and interfaces
Answer: ABF

11. Which Domain name is valid during an installation process?
A. itnmdomain
B. itnm-domain
C. ITNMDOMAIN
D. ITNM-DOMAIN
Answer: C

12. When planning for an IBM Tivoli Network Manger IP Edition deployment, which three factors require a custom installation rather than a default? (Choose three.)
A. there is a Failover requirement
B. the requirement to install as a non-root user
C. firewall ACLs in operation within the managed network
D. system restrictions preventing the launching of X-windows
E. the Netcool Common Information Model database type is Oracle
F. Federal Information Processing Standard compliance is required
Answer: AEF

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Adobe AfterEffects CS4 Exam

• Exam Number/Code : 9A0-096
• Exam Name : Adobe AfterEffects CS4 Exam
• Questions and Answers : 143 Q&As

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Exam : Adobe 9A0-096
Title : Adobe(r) AfterEffects(r) CS4 Exam

1. When previewing an After Effects composition that contains several nested compositions, a Timeline panel different from the current Composition panel plays.
What is causing this scenario?
A. The Timeline panel is locked.
B. The Composition panel is locked.
C. The Maximize Frame command has been enabled for the Timeline panel.
D. The Maximize Frame command has been enabled for the Composition panel.
E. You have selected a nested composition in the Timeline panel with the mouse before previewing.
Answer: B

2. Which tool lets you change the point from which transformations happen to a layer in the Composition panel, without changing the layer’s appearance or position?
A. Selection tool
B. Puppet Pin tool
C. Pan Behind tool
D. Convert Vertex tool
E. Unified Camera tool
Answer: C

3. Which action lets you motion sketch an animation with the Puppet Pin tool?
A. drag a Deform pin with the Puppet Pin tool
B. place Deform pins at different points in time in the Composition panel
C. place Puppet Overlap pins at different points in time in the Composition panel
D. drag a Deform pin with the Control key (Windows) or Command key (Mac OS)
E. drag a Puppet Overlap pin with the Control key (Windows) or Command key (Mac OS)
Answer: D

4. When working in an After Effects Composition panel, you need to lock the current composition viewer, split the current frame, and create a new composition viewer in the frame.
Which action performs this function in the Composition panel?
A. choose Maximize Frame from the Composition panel menu
B. press Ctrl+Alt+Shift+N (Windows) or Command+Option+Shift+N (Mac OS) on the keyboard
C. lock the Composition panel and choose Maximize Frame from the Composition panel menu
D. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) drag the gripper area in the upper-left corner of the Composition panel into the center of the work area
E. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) drag the group gripper in the upper-right corner of the Composition panel into the center of the work area
Answer: B

5. Which statement is true about typing the string Anchor in the Quick Search option of the Timeline panel when no layers are selected?
A. No Anchor Point properties will be revealed.
B. All Anchor Point properties for all layers will be revealed.
C. Only keyframed Anchor Point properties will be revealed.
D. Anchor Point properties for hidden layers will not be revealed.
Answer: B

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Exam : Microsoft 70-510
Title : TS:Visual Studio 2005 Team Foundation Server

1. You need to deploy Team Foundation Server Proxy at remote locations to meet the following criteria:
·Integrate the Team Foundation Server (TFS) solution with the Active Directory domain.
·Implement the correct version of IIS.
·Maintain cached information at the remote site.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install IIS 6.0. in the Application Server Role dialog box, and then select the Enable ASP.NET check box.
B. Change the Interval for Saving Cache Performance Statistics configuration value in the proxy.config file to 48 hours.
C. Create a Windows domain user account for Team Foundation Server Proxy and define the user account as the service identity.
D. Go to the following URL to change the cache limit at which old files are removed from the Team Foundation Server Proxy cache:
http: //<tfsserver>:8080/WorkItemTracking/v1.0/ConfigurationSettingsService.asmx?op=SetMaxAttachmentSize
Answer: AC

2. You deploy an instance of Team Foundation Server (TFS) on a server named Contoso. You install Team Foundation Server Proxy on a remote server named Contosoremote1.
You need to identify the task that authorized users can perform by using Team Foundation Server Proxy.
Which task can authorized users perform?
A. Use cached work items at the remote site.
B. Use cached source control at the remote site.
C. Enable firewall protection at the remote site.
D. Download source control files from remote locations when disconnected from the TFS application-tier server by executing queries of the Get Latest Version type.
Answer: B

3. You need to install and configure IIS and Microsoft Windows SharePoint Services as part of a Team Foundation Server (TFS) deployment process.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Install IIS without using FrontPage 2002 Server Extensions.
B. Install Windows SharePoint Services with the Server Farm mode enabled.
C. Install Windows SharePoint Services on a server drive that is formatted with a FAT32 file system.
D. Add the user account that is used to install the applications to the TFS Administrators security group.
Answer: AB

4. Your company decides to deploy Team Foundation Server (TFS).
The TFS deployment must fulfill the following criteria:
·Support static code analysis.
·Support automated unit tests.
·Support a development team that consists of more than five developers.
You need to install and configure Team Foundation Build Server to meet the required criteria.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Define a user account as the build service identity.
B. Install Microsoft Visual Studio Team Edition for Software Testers.
C. Install Microsoft Visual Studio Team Edition for Software Developers.
D. Run the TFS setup program that is located in the root directory of the installation medium.
Answer: AC

5. You write the following code segment. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)
01 namespace BuildNumberCreator
02 {
03 public class BuildNumberCreator:Task
04 {
05 public override bool Execute()
06 {
07 m_buildNumber =
08 DateTime.Now.ToString();
09 return true;
10 }
11 private string m_buildNumber;
12 [Output]
13 public string BuildNumber
14 {
15 get
16 {
17 return m_buildNumber;
18 }
19 }
20 }
21 }
Here is the same code segment in Visual Basic:
01 Public Class BuildNumberCreator
02 Inherits Task
03 Public Overrides Function Execute() As Boolean
04 m_buildNumber = DateTime.UtcNow.Ticks.ToString()
05 Return True
06 End Function
07
08 Private m_buildNumber As String
09
10 <Output()> Public ReadOnly Property BuildNumber() As String
11 Get
12 Return m_buildNumber
13 End Get
14 End Property
15 End Class
You need to design a custom build number generator that overrides the default build number generation algorithm.
Which XML fragment should you insert as the target override in the project file schema?
A. <Target Name = "BuildNumberOverrideTarget" >
<BuildNumberCreator />
</Target>
B. <Target Name = "BuildNumberOverrideTarget" >
<BuildNumberCreator TaskParameter="BuildNumber" />
</Target>
C. <Target Name = "BuildNumberOverrideTarget" >
<BuildNumberCreator>
<Output TaskParameter="BuildNumber" />
</BuildNumberCreator>
</Target>
D. <Target Name = "BuildNumberOverrideTarget" >
<BuildNumberCreator>
<Output TaskParameter="BuildNumber" PropertyName=
"BuildNumber"/>
</BuildNumberCreator>
</Target>
Answer: D

6. Your company decides to deploy an instance of Team Foundation Server (TFS). The instance must fulfill the following criteria:
·Support the requirements of the existing 200 users.
·Be capable of supporting a maximum of 400 users.
·Support automated and centralized builds.
·Support the automated execution of unit tests.
·Conserve system resources by preventing development tools from being installed on the TFS application tier or the TFS data tier.
You need to propose appropriate TFS deployment strategies.
Which two strategies should you propose? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Host the TFS application tier, the TFS data tier, and the Team Foundation Build server on the same server.
B. Host the TFS application tier, the TFS data tier, and the Team Foundation Build server on separate servers.
C. Host the TFS application tier and the TFS data tier on one server and host the Team Foundation Build server on another server.
D. Host the TFS application tier and the Team Foundation Build server on one server and host the TFS data tier on another server.
E. Host the TFS application tier on one server and host the TFS data tier and the Team Foundation Build server on another server.
Answer: BC

7. Your company has a main office in New York and a branch office in Mumbai. Your company wants to connect the Team Foundation Server (TFS) that is installed in the main office with the servers installed at the branch office.
Builds must be run from the main office servers.
You need to identify the TFS components that must be installed on the servers or workstations in the branch office.
Which two components should you install? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Team Foundation Server Proxy
B. Team Foundation Server Build
C. Team Explorer on all the workstations
D. TFS Power Tools on the TFS application-tier server
Answer: AC

8. Your company has deployed an instance of Team Foundation Server (TFS) on a server named server1.contoso.com.
You need to confirm that all default services are running.
What should you do?
A. Run the ANALYZE program and specify the correct Microsoft Visual SourceSafe file to be analyzed.
B. Use Team Explorer and the Create Team Project Wizard to create a team project on the server1.contoso.com server.
C. Go to http: //server1.contoso.com:8080/services/v1.0/ServerStatus.asmx and invoke the GetServerStatus method.
D. Go to http: //server1.contoso.com:8080/services/v1.0/Administration.asmx and invoke the QueryRepositoryInformation method.
Answer: B

9. Your company decides to deploy an instance of Team Foundation Server (TFS).
You need to identify the tasks that authorized users can perform by using Team Explorer.
Which three tasks can the authorized users perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. View, create, and print reports.
B. Define the TFS Build schedules.
C. View and customize work item types.
D. View, check in, check out, branch, and merge source files.
E. Provide name, file extension, and file merging support by file type for Source Control.
F. Assign permissions by using Microsoft Windows Users, Groups, or TFS Groups to manage the Team Project security settings.
Answer: DEF

10. You have a Team Foundation Server (TFS) instance named Production that hosts a team project named Contoso.
A custom check-in policy is defined and compiled into an assembly named Policies.CustomPolicies.dll.
You need to install the Policies.CustomPolicies.dll assembly for the Contoso project.
Which three tasks should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Add the Policies.CustomPolicies.dll assembly to the global assembly cache.
B. In Team Explorer, go to the source control settings for the Contoso project and add the custom check-in policy.
C. Copy the Policies.CustomPolicies.dll assembly in the Production server to the C:WindowsCustomPolicies location.
D. Locate the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINESoftwareMicrosoftVisualStudio8.0TeamFoundation SourceControlCheckin Policies registry key. Add?a String Value parameter named Policies.CustomPolicies. Type C:WindowsCustomPolicies Policies.CustomPolicies.dll in the Value data box.
E. Create an XML file named CustomPolicies.policy and copy it to the C:WindowsCustomPolicies location. The XML file must contain the following XML fragment:
<?xml version="1.0"?>
<Policy>
<AssemblyName> Policies.CustomPolicies</AssemblyName>
<AssemblyPath> C:WindowsCustomPoliciesPolicies.CustomPolicies.dll </AssemblyPath>
</Policy>
Answer: BCD

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Exam : IBM 000-917
Title : System Administration for IBM Informix Dynamic Server V10

1. In which of the following situations is a checkpoint requested?
A. When the logical logs are filled
B. When the physical log file is 75% full
C. When a buffered-logging database is created
D. When the value of the LTXHWM configuration parameter is passed
Answer: B

2. A database server is experiencing slow query response times. Operating system utilities show that all 6 CPUs are at around 50% utilization. There are currently 4 CPU VPs configured on the database server. Of the following, which is the most probable change that could be made to correct this problem?
A. Add more AIO VPs.
B. Add more CPU VPs.
C. Turn on Processor Affinity.
D. Add more physical processors to the machine.
Answer: B

3. A dbspace was recently added to a database server. Which of the following commands will help identify whether disk layout problems exist as a result of adding the dbspace?
A. onstat -g iob
B. onstat -g iov
C. onstat -g iof
D. onstat -g glo
Answer: C

4. A database server has been running for days but after monthly reports were run, the following message appeared in the online.log:
12:25:01 Memory allocation error
Which of the following most likely caused the error?
A. The DS_TOTAL_MEMORY has been reached.
B. The swap space on the computer has been set too high.
C. An operating system limit on shared memory has been reached.
D. The BUFFERS and SHMVIRTSIZE configuration parameters are larger than the maximum segment size allowed.
Answer: C

5. Following are outputs of ‘onstat -k’ and ‘onstat -u’ command:
Users are reporting that they cannot access a table because they are getting errors indicating that the table is locked. The Lock address ‘a155380′ is holding a lock on the table. What is the session id for lock address ‘a155380′?
A. 34
B. 36
C. 38
D. 40
Answer: D

6. Which of the following best describes external backups on the IBM Informix Dynamic Server?
A. An external backup allows backups using onbar or ontape; database transactions are active during external backups.
B. An external backup allows backups using onbar or ontape; database transactions are suspended during external backups.
C. An external backup allows backups using operating system or third-party utilities; transactions are active during external backups.
D. An external backup allows backups using operating system or third-party utilities; transactions are suspended during external backups.
Answer: D

7. A Database Administrator is configuring the NETTYPE configuration parameter to set the number of poll threads for shared memory connections. The administrator would like to allow 100 users, 2 poll threads, and run the poll threads on a CPU VP. Based on the above information, the Database Administrator should configure the NETTYPE parameter with which of the following entries?
A. ipcshm,2,50,CPU
B. ipcshm,50,2,NET
C. ipcshm,100,2,CPU
D. ipcshm,2,100,CPU
Answer: A

8. A Database Administrator needs to know the physical location of a table. Which of the following commands would show this information?
A. oncheck -pe
B. oncheck -pr
C. oncheck -pR
D. oncheck -pp
Answer: A

9. The following error message appears in the database server message log:
09:28:43 Aborting Long Transaction: tx 0xa43c728 username: sallyr uid: 200
This transaction has rolled back. Which of the following best describes the situation in the error message?
A. A transaction has spanned multiple logical-log files and has caused the logical-log files to fill to 100% full.
B. A transaction has caused the physical-log file to fill to the percentage indicated by the LTXHWM configuration parameter.
C. A transaction has caused a single logical-log file to fill to the percentage indicated by the LTXHWM configuration parameter.
D. A transaction starting in the oldest log is open, and the percentage of logical-log files filled has passed the LTXHWM configuration parameter.
Answer: D

10. Images with an average size of 50 bytes are to be stored as large objects in the database. For a database server that uses a 4KB page size, which of the following methods should be used to store the large objects and utilize disk space most efficiently?
A. Create a normal dbspace to store the large objects.
B. Create a blobspace with a 2KB blobpage size to store the large objects.
C. Create a blobspace with an 8KB blobpage size to store the large objects.
D. Create a blobspace with a 16KB blobpage size to store the large objects.
Answer: A

11. Given the following information collected by the ‘onstat -d’ command:
What type of dbspace is the ‘temp_space2′ dbspace?
A. Blob dbspace
B. Normal dbspace
C. Mirrored dbspace
D. Temporary dbspace
Answer: B

12. Querying the sysmaster database table sysdatabases returns a row with a value of 1 for is_logging and a value of 0 for is_buff_log and is_ansi; What is the current log status of the database?
A. ANSI
B. Not logged
C. Buffered logging
D. Unbuffered logging
Answer: D

13. To specify which configuration file to use, the ONCONFIG environment variable must be set to the:
A. name of the configuration file to use.
B. path of the configuration file to use.
C. path and name of the configuration file to use.
D. $INFORMIXDIR/etc directory where the configuration file will be located.
Answer: A

14. A Database Administrator is configuring the files to establish network connections on a UNIX system, which uses a sockets interface and a TCP/IP protocol.
The DBSERVERNAME configuration parameter has been set to ‘dbserver1′ and the name of the UNIX host machine is ‘chicago1′. The service name used is ’sqlexec’.
Which of the following entries in the sqlhosts file should be used?
A. chicago1 sqlexec dbserver1 onsoctcp
B. chicago1 onsoctcp dbserver1 sqlexec
C. dbserver1 onsoctcp sqlexec chicago1
D. dbserver1 onsoctcp chicago1 sqlexec
Answer: D

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Exam : CompTIA RF0-001
Title : RFID+ Certification

1. Which of the following is the established frequency for high frequency (HF) RFID tags in the United States?
A. 2.45GHz
B. 13.56MHz
C. 860MHz
D. 915MHz
Answer: B

2. Which of the following will affect the performance when a technician is designing an interrogation zone? (Select TWO).
A. Read operations take longer than write operations.
B. Write operations take longer than read operations.
C. Once the tag has been read, writing operations are faster.
D. The maximum write range is less than the maximum read range.
E.The maximum read range is less than the maximum write range.
Answer: BD

3. In a high frequency (HF) passive system, the anticipated read range should be:
A. less than 3.2 feet (one meter).
B. between 3.2 and 16 feet (one and 5 meters).
C. greater than 32 feet (10 meters).
D. between 16 and 32 feet (5 meters and 10 meters).
Answer: A

4. When installing equipment into a proposed interrogation zone based on the site diagram, a technician observes that the cooling fans at the dock doors are directly in the way of the dock stands requiring installation. Which of the following actions should the technician take?
A. Cancel the installation because there are physical constraints preventing them from completing the job as designed.
B. Remove the fans; install the dock stands, and then remount the fans to the dock stand to complete the job.
C. Remove the fans and place them on the floor just outside of the proposed interrogation zone.
D. Contact the project manager to arrange a meeting with site management and determine the best solution.
Answer: D

5. Cyclic Redundancy Check (CRC) is a form of:
A. frequency evaluation.
B. data validation.
C. communication.
D. serial number validation.
Answer: B

6. RFID printers are able to encode a single tag at a time because of their ability to isolate a tag. This is achieved:
A. by positioning and tuning the antenna.
B. because metal case blocks external interference allowing for the tag to be isolated.
C. because characteristics of far-field communication allow for only one tag to be encoded.
D. by ensuring that there is at least 8 inches (20 centimeters) between inserts.
Answer: A

7. An engineer plans to use RFID to track car engines in an automotive product line. The read range requirement needs to be a maximum of twelve feet (3.7 meters). Which of the following RFID technologies would be BEST to implement?
A. Passive low frequency (LF)
B. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF)
C. Passive high frequency (HF)
D. Active
Answer: B

8. All of the following are true of widely implemented "slap and ship" programs EXCEPT they:
A. make it difficult to optimize label application for the container.
B. are more susceptible to electrostatic discharge (ESD) than in-line automatic applicators.
C. are lower in cost than application in manufacturing.
D. are more likely to break the bond between the antenna and the chip.
Answer: C

9. As the distance between tags in a passive ultra high frequency (UHF) RFID interrogation zone decreases, which of the following is affected?
A. Time required to power the tag
B. Distance at which the tag can be read
C. Coverage area of the interrogation zone
D. Power level of the field
Answer: B

10. A customer has an existing RFID system that has been functioning accurately. The customer starts a new product line and observes a dramatic decrease in read rates. Which of the following would be the FIRST step to take to determine the cause of the decreased read rates?
A. Do a site assessment for sources of interference.
B. Examine the currently installed equipment for failed parts.
C. Perform a tag placement test on the new product.
D. Attempt to read the new product using a handheld interrogator.
Answer: C

11. Circular polarized antennas are the BEST choice when:
A. the tags are oriented in a variety of directions.
B. the orientations of the tags are controlled.
C. a longer read distance is required.
D. a higher speed is required.
Answer: A

12. An RFID application at an automobile distributorship must be able to inventory the cars from a central location. Which of the following RFID technologies would work BEST in this application?
A. Active UHF
B. Passive high frequency (HF)
C. Passive ultra high frequency (UHF)
D. Active surface acoustic wave (SAW)
Answer: A

13. Multiple tags are present in an interrogators RF field and must be identified by the interrogator, which of the following techniques should be used?
A. Dense reader mode
B. Filtering
C. Encryption
D. Anti-collision
Answer: D

14. In an RFID implementation a technician receives a support ticket indicating that users are no longer able to see items in a specific discrete area. Which of the following items is the cause?
A. Tags are being plastic wrapped.
B. The communication network is down.
C. The RFID interrogator has lost power.
D. The building power is down.
Answer: C

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Exam : Cisco 646-229
Title : Cisco(r) IP Communications Advanced Account Manager

1. A Cisco converged IP environment consists of four layers, including the client layer, the services layer, and the applications layer. What is the fourth layer of the IP environment?
A. hub layer
B. data network layer
C. infrastructure layer
D. hardware layer
Answer: C

2. Which product is the software-based call-processing component of a Cisco IP telephony solution?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Cisco Unity
C. Cisco Unity Express
D. Cisco Media Convergence Server
Answer: A

3. Which product provides call processing for as many as 240 Cisco IP phones and also provides delivery of hybrid PBX functionality to enterprise branches or small businesses?
A. Cisco CallManager
B. Cisco Unity
C. Cisco CallManager Express
D. Cisco Media Convergence Server
Answer: C

4. In simple terms, what is a converged solution?
A. the collective maintenance of separate networks for voice, video, and data
B. a hybrid solution made of connected IP and digital devices that enables voice and video over the same network
C. a combination of premier Cisco voice and software solutions connected by Cisco routers and switches
D. a solution that combines and enables voice, video, and data over the same network
Answer: D

5. What are two common benefits of converged Cisco IP solutions? (Choose two.)
A. retention of existing hardware
B. increased productivity
C. limited extension mobility
D. reduced TCO
E. ensured availability via two networks
Answer: BD

6. Which capability does the Cisco Catalyst 2950 Series switches provide?
A. modular architecture and VPN access
B. wire-speed Fast Ethernet and Gigabit Ethernet connectivity
C. advanced QoS and multilayer switching
D. network intelligent services, while maintaining the simplicity of traditional LAN switching
Answer: B

7. Which hardware device enables a reliable, manageable way to connect IP telephony systems to existing switches or analog devices?
A. hub
B. switch
C. router
D. gateway
Answer: D

8. Which of these products would be most appropriate to recommend to a customer that wants to switch from a PBX to Cisco CallManager without changing its voice mailbox?
A. Cisco DPA 7600 Series Gateways
B. Cisco VG248 Analog Phone Gateway
C. Cisco 800 Series Integrated Services Routers
D. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series
Answer: A

9. Which business driver is most responsible for the mass migration of the market toward converged solutions?
A. security
B. increased revenue
C. ease of use
D. productivity
Answer: B

10. What does a converged solution enable that a traditional solution does not enable?
A. specific networks for specific applications
B. 100 percent uptime
C. mission-critical e-mail, fax, and PBX functions
D. use of the Cisco Self-Defending Network
Answer: D

11. Cisco CallManager Express would be most appropriate for which potential customer?
A. an organization that needs to support a large number of teleworkers
B. a global organization with many offices around the world
C. an organization with several regional and branch offices
D. a small organization with approximately 100 employees
Answer: D

12. In what way does Cisco IP Communicator enable users to place and receive calls?
A. allows analog communications over digital devices
B. uses IP telephony to leverage Wi-Fi
C. uses their desktop or laptop computers as telephones
D. saves data packets on network servers and retrieves data packets from network servers
Answer: C

13. What is a key benefit of a converged solution for many organizations?
A. controls the high service costs that discourage network moves, adds, and changes
B. reduces reliance on switch technology
C. significantly reduces the TCO of voice networks in the short term
D. combines all data and voice networks under one system
Answer: A

14. Which Cisco IP phone would be most appropriate for a customer who would like to have additional lines and speed dial buttons on their phone?
A. Cisco IP Phone 7902G
B. Cisco IP Phone 7910SW
C. Cisco IP Phone 7914 Expansion Module
D. Cisco IP Phone 7940
Answer: C

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system adminsitration for red brick wanehouse v6

• Exam Number/Code : 000-914
• Exam Name : system adminsitration for red brick wanehouse v6
• Questions and Answers : 153 Q&As

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Exam : IBM 000-914
Title : System Adminsitration for Red Brick Wanehouse V6

1. The _____________ collects statistics for the dynamic statistic tables (DSTs) and performs the actions specified by ALTER SYSTEM commands.
A. listener thread (rbwlsnr)
B. process checker thread (rbwpchk)
C. administration Daemon Process (rbwadmd)
D. Red Brick API thread (rbwapid)
Answer: C

2. Which of the following definitions describe the STAR index?
A. A sorted list of concatenated row IDs from the dimension tables named in the index key
B. A bitmap index based on fact table rows
C. An index built over multiple fact table columns
D. A multi-table join index based on fact table foreign key values
E. a and b
F. a, b, c, and d
G. a, c, and d
H. c and d
Answer: G

3. Red Brick Decision Server is implemented on Windows NT by a ___________ that runs as a ___________.
A. single multithreaded process, Windows NT service
B. Windows NT service, single multithreaded process
C. NTFS file system, Windows NT service
D. none of the above
Answer: A

4. Target indexes and multi-column B-Tree on the foreign key columns of a fact table support:
A. Natural join
B. TARGETJoin
C. Star index
D. Clustered index
Answer: B

5. The fillfactor should always be set to 100% in cases of:
A. Data spaces
B. Star indexes
C. TMU_REORG TEMPSPACE
D. Small domain target indexes
Answer: D

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